Answer: 1.28
Explanation:
The portfolio beta is a weighted average of the investments in the portfolio.
The new beta will therefore be;
= Portfolio beta - weighted beta of stock being sold + weighted beta of stock to be added
= 1.3 + ( 10,000/150,000 * 1.6) + ( 1.3 * 10,000/150,000)
= 1.3 - 0.11 + 0.09
= 1.28
Answer:
The annualy payment for theamortized loan is $6,802.44
Explanation:
First we will find the total loan payment TP for the $20,000 borrowed over the next four years with a annual return of 8%:
TP = $20,000 *(1+8%)^4
TP = $20,000 *(1.08)^4
TP = $20,000 *1.3605 = $27,209.7
The annual payments AN is obtained by dividing the TP into the 4 years:
AN = $27,209.7 / 4 = $6,802.44
Answer:
Please find the detailed answer as follows:
Explanation:
a) Predetermined overhead rate = Estimated manufacturing overhead cost / Estimated total units in the allocation based
Predetermined overhead rate = 600,000 / 500,000 = 1.2 perunit
b) Total fixed cost spending variance = Actual fixed overhead cost - Estimated overhead cost
= 599,400 - 600,000
= 600 (F) Favourable
c) Total fixed cost volume variance = Actual fixed overheads - Estimated fixed overheads
Actual fixed overheads = Estimated fixed overhead rate * Actual units produced
= 1.2 * 508,000 = $609,600
Total fixed cost volume variance =$ 609,600 - $600,000 = $9600 (F) Favourable
Answer: $107,600 ordinary gain and $530,400 Section 1231 gain
Explanation:
Section 1231 property is when a business property that's either real or depreciable is held for more than one year. It should be noted that section 1231 gain which arises when the property is sold will be taxed at lower capital gains tax rate which is versus the ordinary income rate.
Therefore, Kuong should characterize the $638,000 gain recognized on sale as $107,600 ordinary gain and $530,400 Section 1231 gain.
The correct option is C.
Answer:
The annuity will cost him $963,212.95.-
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Cash flow= $75,000
Interest rate= 0.0525
n= 20
First, we need to calculate the final value. We will use the following formula:
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i + {[A*(1+i)^n]-A}
A= annual cash flow
FV= {75,000*[(1.0525^20) - 1]/0.0525} + {[75,000*(1.0525^20)] - 75,000}
FV= 2,546,491.88 + 133,690.82= $2,680,182.70
Now, the present value:
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 2,680,182.70/(1.0525^20)
PV= $963,212.95
