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Elan Coil [88]
3 years ago
7

What is the lateral surface area of a cylindrical-shaped candle with a radius of 4 cm and a height of 14 cm? (Use 3.14 for pi .)

Mathematics
2 answers:
Alexxandr [17]3 years ago
7 0
I hope this helps you

DaniilM [7]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

it is c

Step-by-step explanation:

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Which statement is true about the graphs of the two lines and ? y= -8x -5/4 and y = 1/8x + 4/5
Ronch [10]
Y = -8x - 5/4......slope here is -8 or -8/1
y = 1/8x + 4/5...slope here is 1/8

what u have here are negative reciprocal slopes....negative reciprocal of a number can be found by flipping the number and changing the sign. So the negative reciprocal of -8/1 is 1/8 (see how I flipped the number and changed the sign)...and when u have negative reciprocal slopes, this means that ur lines are perpendicular.
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What is the common ratio for the sequence:<br> 28, -14, 7, -3.5...
Setler79 [48]
1/2,-1/2 is the answer
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2 years ago
Explain why each of the following integrals is improper. (a) 4 x x − 3 dx 3 Since the integral has an infinite interval of integ
erma4kov [3.2K]

Answer:

a

   Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral

b

   Since the integral has an infinite interval of integration, it is a Type 1 improper integral

c

  Since the integral has an infinite interval of integration, it is a Type 1 improper integral

d

     Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral

Step-by-step explanation:

Considering  a

          \int\limits^4_3 {\frac{x}{x- 3} } \, dx

Looking at this we that at x = 3   this  integral will be  infinitely discontinuous

Considering  b    

        \int\limits^{\infty}_0 {\frac{1}{1 + x^3} } \, dx

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between 0 \ and  \  \infty which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is  a Type 1 improper integral

Considering  c

       \int\limits^{\infty}_{- \infty} {x^2 e^{-x^2}} \, dx

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between -\infty \ and  \  \infty which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is  a Type 1 improper integral

Considering  d

        \int\limits^{\frac{\pi}{4} }_0  {cot (x)} \, dx

Looking at the integral  we see that  at  x =  0  cot (0) will be infinity  hence the  integral has an infinite discontinuity , so  it is a  Type 2 improper integral

     

7 0
3 years ago
John is buying a TV that costs $1250. He currently has $200 saved and is
Angelina_Jolie [31]
It will take him 21 weeks to have $1250 saved
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3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which equation has no solution?
san4es73 [151]

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps

4 0
2 years ago
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