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natulia [17]
3 years ago
6

Question is 15 points

Mathematics
1 answer:
Illusion [34]3 years ago
5 0

In every right triangle, legs are hypothenuse are linked by the following relationship: the sine of an angle is given by the ratio of the opposite leg and the hypothenuse, while the cosine of an angle is given by the ratio of the adjacent leg and the hypothenuse.

In this case, the hypothenuse is 391 units long, while the 267-units-leg is adjacent to the angle you're interested in.

For this reason, you have

\cos(A) = \cfrac{267}{391} \approx 0.68286445

To find the value of the angle, simply invert this formula:

A = \arccos(0.68286445) \approx 46.93

If we need to approximate this value to the nearest degree, we can observe that 46.93 lies between 46 and 47. So, we have to choose the closest one.

46 is 0.93 units far, while 47 is only 0.07 units far, so the answer is 47.

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Well it is i think

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Katyanochek1 [597]

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yuradex [85]
A coin has one of two outcomes: heads or tails.
Each has an equal probability of occurring, meaning that they each have a 50% chance to occur. (They need to add up to 100% because they include all the outcomes, divide that into two equal parts and...)

This is what we call theoretical probability. It's a guess as to how probability <em>should</em> work. Like in the experiment, it's not always going to be 50-50.

What <em>actually happens</em> is called experimental probability. This may vary slightly from theoretical probability because you can't predict probability with complete certainty, you can only say what is <em>most likely to happen</em>.

We want to find the probability of getting heads in our experiment so we can compare it to the theoretical outcome. To do this, we need to compare the number of heads to the total number of outcomes.

We have 63 heads, and a total of 150 coin flips.
That makes the probability of getting a heads 63/150.
The hard part is getting this ratio into a percent.

You can try simply dividing, but you should be able to notice something here.
SInce the top and the bottom of our fraction are both divisible by 3, we can <em>simiplify</em>.
63 ÷ 3 = 21
150 ÷ 3 = 50
So we could say that 63/150 = 21/50.

A percent is basically a fraction out of 100.
Just like you can divide the parts of a ratio by the same number and it will stay the same, you can also multiply. To get the fraction out of 100, let's multiply by 2.
(since 50 × 2 = 100)

21 × 2 = 42
50 × 2 = 100
21/50 = 42/100 = 42%

Comparing our experimental probability to the theoretical one...it is 8% lower.
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
ethan earned 5% of the maximum number of points possible . It ethan earned 40 points , what is the maximum number of points poss
Morgarella [4.7K]

Answer:

3840

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Help quickly! A student wants to report on the number of movies her friends watch each week. The collected data are below:
max2010maxim [7]
1.The measure of center that is most appropriate for this situation is the MEDIAN. This is because, one of the number given is an outlier, that is, it is much greater than the rest of the given numbers. If the mean of the number given is calculated, it will be discovered that the mean value obtained is higher than most of the scores in the data set, thus,the mean is not a suitable measure of central tendency in this case.
2. To find the median of the given numbers, arrange them in a descending order and add the two numbers in the middle then divide the value by 2.
That is, 0, 0, 1, 1, 2, 2, 2, 14.
The two numbers in the middle is 1 and 2.
 Median = [1 + 2] / 2 = 3/2 = 1.5
Therefore, the median is 1.5
6 0
3 years ago
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