Answer:
The correct answer is letter "D": $24.
Explanation:
Opportunity cost can be defined as the cost of the best next available option after taking another decision in regards to a situation. It is also the return that the chosen option provides compared to the return that could have provided the option that was forgone.
In this case, choosing to go to the local carnival will represent losing one hour of working as a coach assistant ($15). Besides, as there is a $9 admission fee to the carnival, you will need to spend that money. Thus, the total opportunity cost of going to the carnival instead of working is $24 (<em>$15+$9=$24</em>).
Answer: Reformation
Explanation: In simple words, reformation refers to a process in which something is changed in the current subject to set it again on the right path.
In the given case, the judge believes that the time period set for avoiding the competition is unusually long. Thus, they can reform the contract to make it suitable and justified for all the parties involved.
Answer: Unilateral contract
Explanation: A Unilateral contract is a form of contract where a promise is made by one party to another, this contract is normally on a condition that the receiver of the promise in the contract would complete some task(s), in order to receive the promise.
Mark made a promise to his staffs in the newspaper newsroom to be fulfilled, if the task was accomplished by anyone. Of which Anna completed the task and claimed the promise by the editor.
Answer:
Find answers below.
Explanation:
Risk management can be defined as the process of identifying, evaluating, analyzing and controlling potential threats or risks present in a business as an obstacle to its capital, revenues and profits. This ultimately implies that, risk management involves prioritizing course of action or potential threats in order to mitigate the risk that are likely to arise from such business decisions.
Price risk is the risk of a decline in a bond's value due to an increase in interest rates. This risk is higher on bonds that have long maturities than on bonds that will mature in the near future.
Reinvestment risk is the risk that a decline in interest rates will lead to a decline in income from a bond portfolio. This risk is obviously high on callable bonds. It is also high on short-term bonds because the shorter the bond's maturity, the fewer the years before the relatively high old-coupon bonds will be replaced with new low-coupon issues. Which type of risk is more relevant to an investor depends on the investor's investment horizon, which is the period of time an investor plans to hold a particular investment. Longer maturity bonds have high price risk but low reinvestment risk, while higher coupon bonds have a higher level of reinvestment risk and a lower level of price risk. To account for the effects related to both a bond's maturity and coupon, many analysts focus on a measure called duration, which is the weighted average of the time it takes to receive each of the bond's cash flows.
The bonds which would have the largest duration is a 10 year - zero coupon bond.
Answer:
Succession management
Explanation:
Succession management can be described as a process of identifying and training new individuals that will take on the role of new leaders. This is done inorder to replace the old leaders in the organisation when they eventually leave the company or retire.
Succession management is very essential because it helps to identify individuals that possess the right skills, experience and capabilities that is needed to move the organization to a higher level.
Succession management is very vital to ensure the continued success of the organization.
