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Blizzard [7]
3 years ago
14

Using the information provided below and assuming the cash flows occur at a constant rate each year, calculate the discounted pa

yback period for Project B
Undiscounted Free cash flow Discounted Free cash flow at 17% cumulative discounted free cash flow

Initial Outlay ($11,000) ($11,000) ($11,000)

Cash flow Year 1 7,000 $5,982.91 ($5,017.09)

2 4,000 $2,922.05 ( $2,095.04)

3 3,000 $1,873.11 ($221.93)

4 2,000 $1,067.30 $845.37

A. 2.79

B. 3.21

C. 4.21.

D. 3.9
Business
1 answer:
Georgia [21]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

B. 3.21

Explanation:

The Cumulative net present value (npv) as indicated in the question has been converted from negative to positive in Year 4, therefore we can assess that the Projected B has completed its pay back period during  Year 4.

Based on above discussion, the discounted pay back period shall be calculated using the following way:

Discounted pay back period=3+Cumulative npv at Year 3/present value of Year 4 cash flow

Discounted pay back period=3+(221.93/1067.30)

                                               =3.21 years

So the answer is B. 3.21

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Consider the following two mutually exclusive projects:Year Cash Flow (X) Cash Flow (Y)0 ?$16,400 ?$16,400 1 6,660 7,190 2 7,240
pickupchik [31]

Answer:

1a. 7.12%

b. 6.99%

2. 9.69%

Explanation:

The IRR is the discount rate that equates the after tax cash flows from an investment to the amount invested.

The IRR can be calculated using a financial calculator.

The IRR for project X :

Cash flow in year 0 = $-16,400

Cash flow in year 1 = $6,660

Cash flow in year 2 = $7240

Cash flow in year 3= $4760

IRR = 7.12%

The IRR for project Y :

Cash flow in year 0 = $-16,400

Cash flow in year 1 = $7,190

Cash flow in year 2 = $7,780

Cash flow in year 3 = $3530

IRR = 6.99%

The cross over rate is the rate that equates the cash flow from both projects.

The first step is to subtract the cash flow from project Y from the cash flow of project X

Cash flow for year 0 = $16400 - $16400 = 0

Cash flow for year 1 = $6,660 - $7,190 = $-530

Cash flow for year 2 =$7,240 -$7,780 =$-540

Cash flow for year 3 = $4,760 - $3,530 = $1230

The next step is to find the discount rate using a financial calculator.

Cash flow for year zero = 0

Cash flow for year one = $-530

Cash flow for year 2 =$-540

Cash flow for year 3 =$1230

Cross over rate = 9.69%

I hope my answer helps you

6 0
3 years ago
FIllmore Company began operations on Sept. 1 by purchasing $4,400 of inventory and $750 of cleaning supplies. During the month,
jarptica [38.1K]

Answer: $3,400

Explanation:

Gross Profit = Sales revenue - Cost of Goods sold

Cost of good sold = Opening stock + Purchases of inventory - Closing stock of inventory

= 0 + 4,400 - 1,800

= $2,600

Gross Profit = 6,000 - 2,600

= $3,400

5 0
3 years ago
A product sells for $5, and has unit variable costs of $3. This product accounts for $20,000 in annual sales, out of the firm's
Ronch [10]

Answer:

0.1333

Explanation:

Given that,

Selling price = $5

Variable cost = $3

Annual sales = $20,000

Total sales = $60,000

Contribution margin:

= Selling price - Variable cost

= $5 - $3

= $2

Number of units sold:

= Annual sales ÷ Selling price

= $20,000 ÷ $5

= 4,000 units

Total contribution sales:

= Number of units sold × Contribution margin per unit

= 4,000 units × $2

= $8,000

Weighted contribution:

= Total contribution sales ÷ Total sales

= $8,000 ÷ $60,000

= 0.1333

6 0
3 years ago
Dragon Inc. a NJ based construction firm is evaluating whether to replace an aging machine with a new model. For the old machine
Vilka [71]

Answer:

It should replace the old machine. In the current accounting period.

Explanation:

We need to perform a relevant cost analysis:

Keep the machine:

F0 = $0

F1 = $1500 maintenance

F2 = $3,000 maintenance

F3 = $6,000 maintenance

F4 = $12,000 maintenance

F5 =$24,000 maintenance + 250 resale value

replace the machine:

F0 = -12,000 purchase + 4,000 sale of old machine = -800

F1 = $900 maintenance

F2 = $900 maintenance

F3 = $900 maintenance

F4 = $900 maintenance

F5 =$900 maintenance + 1,500 resale value

As revenues are the same for each machine, we ignore them. We will only focus on the cost each machine generate:

We solve for the present worth of each machine with a discount rate of 12%

\displaystyle PV_{old} = -\frac{1,500}{1.12} - \frac{3,000}{1.12^2} - \frac{6,000}{1.12^3} - \frac{12,000}{1.12^4} - \frac{23,750}{1.12^5}\\\\\displaystyle PV_{old} = -29,104.15

\displaystyle PV_{new} = -8,000 - \frac{900}{1.12} - \frac{900}{1.12^2} - \frac{900}{1.12^3} - \frac{900}{1.12^4} +  \frac{600}{1.12^5}\\\\\displaystyle PV_{new} = -10,393.16

As the present worth of the new machine is lower, the best decision for the company is to purchase the new machine and sale the old machine.

Delaying this will incur in higher maintenance cost (1,500 - 900)

and a lower recovery value (4,000 - 2,000)

As there is no cost saving for delaying the purchase, it should be made immediately.

8 0
3 years ago
On September 21, 2017, Umbrella Company announced a 3 for 1 stock split. After the split, the company will have about 24.6 milli
Lady bird [3.3K]

Answer:

vbnmm

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
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