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AleksAgata [21]
4 years ago
11

Help with both please

Mathematics
1 answer:
KIM [24]4 years ago
4 0
The one that does not belong is plane CDE, the reason being the rest are line segments. Line segments differ from the planes because they have fewer number of dimensions as compared to the planes. Thus the correct answer is:
plane CDE
reason being:
The one that does not belong has different number of dimensions
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Find the area of the circle with a circumference of 18.84 miles. Use 3.14 for π.
LenaWriter [7]
2.473 is the answer
7 0
3 years ago
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Yvonne is researching the effect of education on annual income. A summary of her research is shown in the table.
asambeis [7]
D, $69,160

Take Assoc. Degree pay, subtract high school pay. 40,820-33,904 = 6,916. Multiply by 10 years = $69,160
5 0
3 years ago
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(a + b + 1)2<br> – (a + b + 1)(x - 2) + (a + b + 1)
lara [203]

Answer: 5a + 5b + 5 - x(a + b)

Step-by-step explanation:

(a + b + 1)2 – (a + b + 1)(x - 2) + (a + b + 1)

2a + 2b + 2 - (ax - 2a + bx -2b -2) + (a + b + 1)

2a + 2b + 2 - ax + 2a - bx +2b +2 + a + b + 1

5a + 5b + 5 - x(a + b)

3 0
3 years ago
Can anyone help me with this? I will mark you as brainliest
Nana76 [90]

Answer:

2/7

then 2/14

Step-by-step explanation:

Let P(H)=p be the probability of one head. In many scenarios, this probability is assumed to be p=12 for an unbiased coin. In this instance, P(H)=3P(T) so that p=3(1−p)⟹4p=3 or p=34.

You are interested in the event that out of three coin tosses, at least 2 of them are Heads, or equivalently, at most one of them is tails. So you are interested in finding the likelihood of zero tails, or one tails.

The probability of zero tails would be the case where you only received heads. Since each coin toss is independent, you can multiply these three tosses together: P(H)P(H)P(H)=p3 or in your case, (34)3=2764.

Now we must consider the case where one of your coin flips is a tails. Since you have three flips, you have three independent opportunities for tails. The likelihood of two heads and one tails is 3(p2)(1−p). The reason for the 3 coefficient is the fact that there are three possible events which include two heads and one tails: HHT,HTH,THH. In your case (where the coin is 3 times more likely to have heads): 3(34)2(14)=2764.

Adding those events together you get p3+3(p2)(1−p)=5464. Note that the 3 coefficient

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
PLEASE ILL GIVE YOU BRAINLIEST!
Alex Ar [27]

Answer:

Taking the square root

Step-by-step explanation:

x^2-36=0

x^2=36

x=\pm6

Alternatively, you can use a difference of squares to factor and solve:

x^2-36=0\\(x+6)(x-6)=0\\x=-6,x=6

5 0
3 years ago
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