Answer and Explanation:
the supply effect of large deficits should cause interest rates to go up. The economic crisis caused wealth and income to be lower
which brought about a depression inTreasury bond demand, corporate bond supply also fell the more as investment opportunities reduced. A greater leftward shift in the bond
supply curve than the rightward shift in the bond demand curve would bring about a rise in
bond prices and a reduction in interest rates. Because off the seriousness of the global crisis, the United States
treasury debt became safe for forms of investment, with relative risk falling and liquidity
for U.S. treasury debt rising.
This then increased the U.S. treasury bond demand, resulting into higher
bond prices and lower yields.
Answer:
we have 4 seasons but here in philippines we just have to it can affect our lifes by just climate change like uhmm rainy day the 4 season is
RAINY
SUNNY
FALL
SNOWY
Answer: c. in the U.S. demand for loanable funds and the supply of dollars in the market for foreign-currency exchange.
Explanation:
Bonds are a type of loanable funds which are issued to gain access to cash for certain activities. Both countries and companies do this. When the U.S. government issues bonds, they do so taking into account the amount of funds they would need to fund what it is they want to funds.
They also do so taking into account, the amount of dollars needed by in the foreign-currency exchange market so that they can pump enough dollars into the world economy.
Answer:
No, Low Feedback
Explanation:
Although Mindy really likes the job because she gets to set my own hours, work on books from start to finish, and do almost everything she really likes to do - talk, think, and write; that would be insufficient to get a high motivation potential score.
Motivation potential score can be defined as an index that determines the behavior of an employee, as a result of major job elements which includes: skill variety, identity, significance, autonomy, and feedback.
Although Mindy rates the job as high on skill variety and autonomy, she has rated it low on feedback when she commented that she <u>haven't had an evaluation in nearly five years</u>.
Answer:
a. True
Explanation:
from the CAPM formula we can derive the statemeent as true.
risk free = 0.05
market rate = 0.12
premium market = (market rate - risk free) 0.07
beta(non diversifiable risk) = 0
Ke 0.05000
As the beta multiplies the difference between the market rate and risk-free rate a beta of zero will nulify the second part of the equation leaving only the risk-free rate. This means the portfolio is not expose to volatility