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harkovskaia [24]
4 years ago
14

John Maynard Keynes recommends active fiscal and monetary policy, so that the government can stimulate the economy when necessar

y. Our text observes that as a result of active fiscal policy:A. there will be stimulation of the economy in the short and long run.B. there may be stimulation of the economy in the long run, but there will be harmful effects to the economy in the short run.C. there will be harmful effects in the short and long run.D. there may be stimulation of the economy in the short run, but there will be harmful effects to the economy in the long run.
Business
1 answer:
irinina [24]4 years ago
5 0

Result of active fiscal policy : there may be stimulation of the economy in the short run, but there will be harmful effects to the economy in the long run.

Explanation:

Active fiscal policy implies that Congress and the President are actively attempting to shift the trajectory of the economy by adjustments in taxes and/or government expenditure.

In an open market, monetary policy often influences the rate of exchange and trade balance.

Moreover, in the long term, the development of international debt, which stems from large government expenditures, can lead investors to mistrust US assets which may trigger the exchange rate to fall.

You might be interested in
Three years ago, Sydney remodeled her home. Rather than discarding some shelving units that were in her home, she moved them to
Alisiya [41]

The correct answers are, $1200 and -$200.

Sydney has taken depreciation on the shelves of $300. The amount of basis and the amount of the gain or loss recognized on the sale of the shelves are $1200 and -$200 respectively.

Explanation:

Fair market value at the date of conversion = $1,500

Depreciation on the Shelves = $300

Basis = Fair market value - Depreciation

Basis = $1500 - $300 = $1,200  

So Basis = $1,200

Now

Sale Price of Shelves = $1,000

Adjusted Basis = $1,200

Loss would be = Sale price - Adjusted Basis

Loss = $1000 - $1200

Loss = -$200

So, Loss = $200

Learn more about depreciation at:

brainly.com/question/10456007

#LearnWithBrainly

4 0
3 years ago
PLS HELP
Vera_Pavlovna [14]

Answer:

1. How is a bond like an IOU?

A bond is an IOU because it is actually a type of IOU. A bond is in essence a security in which the bond issuer promises to pay the bondholder the full value of the bond at maturity, plus interest payments (coupons) that can be paid either periodically, or at maturity as well.

2. Why is an investment grade bond is considered a “safe” investment?

Investment grade bonds are those bonds that have a rating that is considered "safe". This rating is provided by agencies such as Standard and Poors or Moody's. It is the credibility behind these agencies that makes a bond with that type of rating a safe investment.

3. How can an investor make money by buying a bond?

The investor makes money because he or she obtains the full value of the bond at maturity plus interest (coupon payments).

Bondholders also have priority over stockholders in case of bankruptcy, so a bond is in many cases a safer investment than a stock.

4. Would you recommend your Stock Market Game team include a bond in your portfolio? Why, why not?

Yes, bonds should be included because they are one of the two main types of securities, the other being stocks precisely. Companies often have to take the decision to finance their operations either with bonds or stocks, or a combination of the two, so if the game includes bonds, it also becomes more realistic.

7 0
3 years ago
A university issues a bond with a face value of $5000 and a coupon rate of 4. 41% that matures on july 15, 2018. The holder of s
Margaret [11]

The coupon payments would be made twice every year.

What is coupon payment?

Coupon payment means the cash amount that bondholders would receive from the university(bond issuer) on periodic basis till the bond matures, it is likely that the coupons are payable semiannually or annually as would be determined in this analysis.

The coupon payment is closely related with the coupon rate , which means that in order to determine the number of times in a year that coupons will be paid we can make use of the coupon received, the par value, the coupon rate, such that the frequency of coupon payments would be the unknown as shown below:

coupon receipt=par value*coupon rate/coupon frequency

coupon receipt=$110.25

par value=$5000

coupon rate=4.41%

coupon frequency=unknown(assume it is X)

$110.25=$5,000*4.41%/X

$110.25=$220.50/X

X=$220.50/$110.25

X=2

Coupons would be twice every year, which means semiannual coupon payments

Read more on coupon frequency on:brainly.com/question/16748047

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7 0
2 years ago
Pollyanna Publishing, a textbook publishing firm, purchased a new machine for $80,000. This machine is expected to operate for 1
emmainna [20.7K]

Answer:

A.

The first year’s Depreciation Expense: $14,400

The second year’s depreciation expense: $11,520

B.

The first year’s Depreciation Expense = The second year’s depreciation expense = $7,200

Explanation:

A. Under the straight-line method, useful life is 10 years, so the asset's annual depreciation will be 10% of the Depreciable cost.

Depreciable cost = Total asset cost - salvage value =  $80,000-$8,000 = $72,000

Under the double-declining-balance method the 10% straight line rate is doubled to 20% - multiplied times the Depreciable cost's book value at the beginning of the year.

In the first year, depreciation expense = 20% x $72,000  = $14,400

At the beginning of the second year, the Depreciable cost's book value is $72,000 -$14,400 = $57,600

In the second year, depreciation expense = 20% x $57,600  = $11,520

B.

The company uses straight-line depreciation, Depreciation Expense each year is calculated by following formula:  

Depreciation Expense = (Cost of machine − salvage value)/Useful Life = ($80,000-$8,000)/10 = $7,200

The first year’s Depreciation Expense = The second year’s depreciation expense = $7,200

7 0
3 years ago
At December 31, 2017 the following balances existed on the books of Beerbo Inc.: $1,200,000 BONDS PAYABLE $168,000 DISCOUNT ON B
Mazyrski [523]

Answer:

bonds payable     1,200,000

interest payable        30,000

loss on redemption 162,000

                  cash                            1,224,000

                  discount on bonds        168,000

to record redemption of the bonds at 102

Explanation:

To know the gain or loss on redemption we will compare the cash disbursement wiht the carrying value fo the bonds

the vbonds are rescue at 102 which means 102% of the face value:

1,200,000 x 102/100 = 1,224,000 cash disbursement

<u>carrying value of the bonds:</u>

1,200,000 - 168,000 discount + 30,000 interest payable = 1,062,000

loss on redemption: 1,224,000 - 1,062,000 = 162,000

we will write-off the bonds related account and credit cash by the amount paid.

8 0
3 years ago
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