Answer:
The 1-day rate of return on the index = 5.36%
Explanation:
Index Value = Sum of (Outstanding Shares*Share Price)
q p mv q1 p1 mv1
640,000 16 10240000 640000 20 12800000
540,000 24 12960000 540000 22 11880000
240,000 55 <u>13200000</u> 240000 57 <u>13680000</u>
<u>36400000 </u> <u>38360000</u>
Note: q/q1 = no of shares, p = price per share, mv/mv1 = market value, p1 = changed price per share
Return = (Index Value Today - Index Value Yesterday)/Index Value Yesterday
Return = (38360000 - 36400000) / 36400000
Return = 0.05385
Return = 5.36%
Answer:
To create the collar, the customer would: <u>buy 1 PHLX 59 SF Call and sell 1 PHLX 61 SF Call.</u>
Explanation:
The meaning of a "collar" is that a put is bought at a strike price that is less than the price of the underlying instrument (this implies that a floor has been put on the price of the instrument); and that a call is disposed at a strike price which is higher than the price of the underlying instrument (this indicates that a ceiling above which the instrument will be called away has been created).
When a collar is put on the price, it indicates that the customer is majorly giving a guarantee for the underlying instrument's minimum and maximum price.
This should make the net cost of the collar to be close to zero due to the fact that the two contracts are "out the money" and also because the premium paid to buy the put is offset by the premium received when the call was sold.
Therefore, since customer in the question wishes to place a collar on the position using PHLX SF FLEX options, he would <u>buy 1 PHLX 59 SF Call and sell 1 PHLX 61 SF Call</u> to create the collar.
Answer:
Variable cost per unit = $1.5 per unit
Fixed cost = $14,558
Explanation:
Variable cost per unit
= cost at high activity - cost at low activity/High activity -low activity
=$(74,798- $41,663) / (40,160 -18,070) units
= $1.5 per unit
Fixed cost
Total fixed cost = cost at high activity - ( vc per unit × high activity)
= 74,798 - (1.5 × 40,160)
= $14,558
Variable cost per unit = $1.5 per unit
Fixed cost = $14,558
Answer:
$171 Favorable
Explanation:
Actual Variable Overhead Rate = Actual variable overhead cost / Actual direct labor-hours used
Actual Variable Overhead Rate = $9,531 / 2,310
Actual Variable Overhead Rate = $4.125974
Variable overhead rate variance = (Standard rate - Actual rate) * Actual Direct labor hours
Variable overhead rate variance = ($4.20 - $4.125974) * 2310
Variable overhead rate variance = $0.074026 * 2310
Variable overhead rate variance = $171 Favorable
Managerial economics can be applied to the non-profit organizations too because it help them in organizing, and controlling their resources.
Managerial economics is relevant to nonprofit organizations and government agencies as well as conventional, for-profit businesses.
<h3>What is
Managerial economics?</h3>
Managerial economics is an area of economics that is used for staffing, as well as controlling the resources of the organization.
With Managerial economics , one can carry out:
- planning
- directing
- organizing
In this case, Managerial economics is relevant to nonprofit organizations and government agencies as well as conventional, for-profit businesses.
Learn more about Managerial economics at:
brainly.com/question/15050855
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