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BARSIC [14]
3 years ago
5

According to Aristotle’s definitions of government, which government would be considered a moral type of government?

History
1 answer:
SCORPION-xisa [38]3 years ago
6 0

Aristotelian politics is essentially united with morality, because the ultimate purpose of the state is virtue, that is, the moral formation of the citizens and all the means necessary for it.

Regarding the forms of state, the philosopher distinguishes three principal ones: the monarchy, which is the government of one, whose character and value are in unity, and whose degeneration is tyranny; the aristocracy, which is the government of a few, whose character and value are in quality, and whose degeneration is the oligarchy; democracy, which is the government of many, whose character and value are in freedom, and whose degeneration is demagoguery.

To Aristotle, the moral type of government would be the one in which the people are sovereign, but that does not mean that people could live as they please; the laws are freedom, salvation, since from the moment the people do what they want, as if nothing is impossible, democracy becomes a tyranny. Democracy according to Aristotle must then be fully sovereign, but with two limitations: <u>it must not go beyond the organs of deliberation and judgment</u>, for these are collective powers expressed in a constitution (the whole of the people is superior to each individual) and not require technical expertise; the second limitation is<u> the duty to act in accordance with the laws.</u>

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