3 years ago

Are 40/1000 and 40% equivalent

Mathematics

2 answers:

bixtya [17]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

No, they are not equivalent

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the percentage of 40/1000 you must divide

40/1000=0.04

To make this a percentage multiply it by 100

Then you get 4%

4% and 40% are not the same

REY [17]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

1000 is equal to (40 / 1000) x 100 = 4%

so.. yes. It is equivalent.

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