Answer:
No, they are not equivalent
Step-by-step explanation:
To find the percentage of 40/1000 you must divide
40/1000=0.04
To make this a percentage multiply it by 100
Then you get 4%
4% and 40% are not the same
1000 is equal to (40 / 1000) x 100 = 4%
so.. yes. It is equivalent.
Hope it helps
Have a good day Ahead
6/8
Multiplica el numerador y el denominador por el mismo número para obtener una fracción equivalente
