Answer:
C) The Spearman correlation results should be reported because at least one of the variables does not meet the distribution assumption required to use Pearson correlation.
Explanation:
The following multiple choice responses are provided to complete the question:
A) The Pearson correlation results should be reported because it shows a stronger correlation with a smaller p-value (more significant).
B) The Pearson correlation results should be reported because the two variables are normally distributed.
C) The Spearman correlation results should be reported because at least one of the variables does not meet the distribution assumption required to use Pearson correlation.
D) The Spearman correlation results should be reported because the p-value is closer to 0.0556.
Further Explanation:
A count variable is discrete because it consists of non-negative integers. The number of polyps variable is therefore a count variable and will most likely not be normally distributed. Normality of variables is one of the assumptions required to use Pearson correlation, however, Spearman's correlation does not rest upon an assumption of normality. Therefore, the Spearman correlation would be more appropriate to report because at least one of the variables does not meet the distribution assumption required to use Pearson correlation.
Answer:
i dont understand
Step-by-step explanation:
Experimental probability = 1/5
Theoretical probability = 1/4
note: 1/5 = 0.2 and 1/4 = 0.25
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How I got those values:
We have 12 hearts out of 60 cards total in our simulation or experiment. So 12/60 = (12*1)/(12*5) = 1/5 is the experimental probability. In the simulation, 1 in 5 cards were a heart.
Theoretically it should be 1 in 4, or 1/4, since we have 13 hearts out of 52 total leading to 13/52 = (13*1)/(13*4) = 1/4. This makes sense because there are four suits and each suit is equally likely.
The experimental probability and theoretical probability values are not likely to line up perfectly. However they should be fairly close assuming that you're working with a fair standard deck. The more simulations you perform, the closer the experimental probability is likely to approach the theoretical one.
For example, let's say you flip a coin 20 times and get 8 heads. We see that 8/20 = 0.40 is close to 0.50 which is the theoretical probability of getting heads. If you flip that same coin 100 times and get 46 heads, then 46/100 = 0.46 is the experimental probability which is close to 0.50, and that probability is likely to get closer if you flipped it say 1000 times or 10000 times.
In short, the experimental probability is what you observe when you do the experiment (or simulation). So it's actually pulling the cards out and writing down your results. Contrast with a theoretical probability is where you guess beforehand what the result might be based on assumptions. One such assumption being each card is equally likely.
Answer in fraction form is exactly 2/27
Answer in decimal form is approximately 0.07407
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Explanation:
4 people play both,9 play flat flute only, 12 play piano only.
So 4+9+12 = 13+12 = 25 people play one instrument only or they play both.
We have 27 people total meaning that 27-25 = 2 play neither instrument.
Divide the values 2 and 27 to get
2/27 = 0.07407
this value is approximate (rounded to five decimal places)
Answer:
0.0355029585799?
Step-by-step explanation:
