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Anit [1.1K]
4 years ago
9

What machine actually reduces the amount of force exerted because it acts over a greater distance?

Physics
2 answers:
Vikentia [17]4 years ago
8 0

bottle opener is the correct answer


vredina [299]4 years ago
3 0

The bottle opener does that. So do levers, pulleys, inclined planes, and some corkscrews.

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Intensity of a wave is the. (a) Power per unit area (b) Power per unit volume (c) Power per unit time (d) All of the above
aksik [14]

Answer:

Intensity of a wave is Power per unit area.

Explanation:

The intensity of wave is defined as the power per unit area in the direction of motion of wave i.e.

I=\dfrac{P}{A}

Also, the intensity of a wave is directly proportional to the square of its amplitude. Let a is the amplitude of a wave. So,

I\propto a^2

The SI unit of power is watt and the SI unit of area is m². So, the SI unit of intensity is W/m². Hence, the correct option is (a) "Intensity of a wave is Power per unit area".

7 0
3 years ago
A steel cylinder has a length of 2.16 in, a radius of 0.22 in, anda mass of 41 g. what is the density of the steel in g/cm^3?
BabaBlast [244]
Find the v first by using 3.14x0.22x2.16 div. 41g
7 0
3 years ago
Rita wants to make some toast for breakfast, which she knows involves a chemical change to the bread.
nalin [4]

Answer:

A

Explanation:

The toaster was too high so its the increase in eat

3 0
4 years ago
What is the potential energy of a 2,000-kg car parked at the top of a 30-m hill?
babymother [125]
Potential energy is a relative measure, so the answer is dependent on the assumptions we make. The potential energy in the car is going to be gravitational potential energy(PE). PE = mgh, where m is the mass, g is 9.8 m/s^2, and h is the height. So PE = 2000*9.8*h = 19600h. The final answer obviously depends on h. Most likely the problem is assuming that 30 meters under the top of the hill is considered 0 meters. Then h would be 30m and PE would equal 588 kJ.
5 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Circular coil 1 has N turns and circular coil 2 has 6N. Coil 1 has area A and coil 2 has area A/4. If Coil 1 has current i runni
solmaris [256]

Answer:

\frac{L_1}{L_2} =\frac{1}{3}

Explanation:

Recall that the formula for an inductance (L) for coil on N turns, are A and current I is given by:

L=\frac{\mu_0\,N^2\,A}{I}

Then, for the first coil we have;

L_1=\frac{\mu_0\,N^2\,A}{I}

and for coil 2 we have:

L_2=\frac{\mu_0\,(6\,N)^2\,(A/4)}{3\,I}

then, the quotient L1/L2 can be written as:

\frac{L_1}{L_2} =\frac{\mu_0\,N^2\,A\,3\,I}{\mu_0\,(6\,N)^2\,(A/4)\,I}=\frac{12}{36} =\frac{1}{3}

7 0
3 years ago
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