Answer:
B) 50º
Step-by-step explanation:
first we need to find angle MPL. to do this we do 180 - 70 - 60 = 50º. angle KPN is the smae as angle MPL. so angle KPN is 50º.
So this problem is asking you to plug numbers in for t. 0 1 2 3 4 5. So your first equation would be 2× 0+8 and you would get 8 so for 0 toppings you would pay 8 dollars then graph this over 0 up 8. Next equation 2×1+8 is 10. Graph. over 1 up 10. Next 2×2+8 is 12. Graph. Over 2 up 12. next 2× 3 + 8 is 14. Graph. Over 3 up 14. Next 2×4+8 is 16 so over 4 up 16. Last 2×5+8 is 18 so over 5 up 18. Your Y-intercept is the dot that is on the y axis and in this problem that is 8. This means if you buy 0 toppings you will spend 8 dollars.
The correct answer is 41.
One way to find the least common multiple of two numbers is to first list the prime factors of each number.
8 = 2 x 2 x 2
Then multiply each factor the greatest number of times it occurs in either number. If the same factor occurs more than once in both numbers, you multiply the factor the greatest number of times it occurs.
2: three occurrences
3: one occurrence
So, our LCM should be
2 x 2 x 2 x 3 = 24.
So, Marco can buy, at the very least, 24 beads of each color to have equal colors of beads.