Answer:
I am confused by this
Step-by-step explanation:
A= P(1 + r/n) ^nt
=8000(1+0.08/2)^8x2
=8000(1.04)^16
=$14983.85
In expanded form, the number would look like this:
300,000,000 + 10,000,000 + 700,000 + 60,000 + 3,000 + 100 + 40 + 6
When you add the value of all of these digits, it'll get you the number: 310,763,146. Adding all of these values up and getting the number you originally started with is a great method of making sure you got the right answer.
Answer:
51/56
Step-by-step explanation:
Keep/Change/Flip
keepthe first fraction the same
change the division sign into a multiplication sign
flip the seond fraction upside down (in this case it would become 3/2)
1. --> d
2. --> b
3. --> a
4. --> c
1 is d because that is the only piece of information that sounds like a given.
2 is b because we know that from the given, m∠1 is complementary to m∠2 and in the first problem, m∠1 + m∠2 = 90, they are added together. The definition of complementary angles is "Two angles with measures that, when added together, equal 90 degrees". Same thing with m∠3 and m∠2.
3 is a because since both of the problems equal 90 degrees, you can just take away the 90 and put an equal sign in between the two problems because they equal the same thing.
4 is c because you are subtracting m∠2 from the problems and ending up with just m∠1 = m∠3.
Hope this helps! :)
