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777dan777 [17]
3 years ago
11

What is f−1(f(x)) = f(f−1(x)) = equal to????? please help

Mathematics
1 answer:
wel3 years ago
6 0

the assumption here is that the function f(x), has an inverse function of f⁻¹(x), so let's assume that is indeed the case, f⁻¹(x) is the inverse function of f(x).


for functions and their inverse, if they're indeed inverse of each other, then


f⁻¹( f(x) ) = x

f( f⁻¹(x) ) = x.

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krek1111 [17]

Answer:

Following are the solution to the given points:

Step-by-step explanation:

When the two-tailed were testing then:

Null and alternative hypothesis:

H_0 : p = 0.611\\\\H_a : p \neq 0.611

Testing the statistics:

\to z = 2.08\\\\P-value = 0.0375\\\\\alpha = 0.01\\\\0.0375> 0.01\\\\P-value < \alpha\\\\

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3 years ago
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LUCKY_DIMON [66]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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A = (2x-3) (2x-3)

FOIL

first 2x*2x =4x^2

outer 2x (-3) = -6x

inner -3*2x = -6x

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Add them together

4x^2 -6x-6x +9

Combine like terms

4x^2 -12x +9

The area is 4x^2 -12x +9 ft^2

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2 years ago
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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72+72=c^2

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6 0
3 years ago
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