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777dan777 [17]
3 years ago
11

What is f−1(f(x)) = f(f−1(x)) = equal to????? please help

Mathematics
1 answer:
wel3 years ago
6 0

the assumption here is that the function f(x), has an inverse function of f⁻¹(x), so let's assume that is indeed the case, f⁻¹(x) is the inverse function of f(x).


for functions and their inverse, if they're indeed inverse of each other, then


f⁻¹( f(x) ) = x

f( f⁻¹(x) ) = x.

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Answer:

→ The table is:

→  x  →  -1   →  0  →  1

→  y  →  -3  →  0  →  3

The graph of the line is figure d

Step-by-step explanation:

∵ y = 3x

∵ x = -1, 0, 1

→ Substitute the values of x in the equation to find the values of y

∴ y = 3(-1) = -3

∴ y = 3(0) = 0

∴ y = 3(1) = 3

→ The table is:

→  x  →  -1   →  0  →  1

→  y  →  -3  →  0  →  3

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→ That means the slope is positive, then the direction of the line must

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Answer:

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