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Hitman42 [59]
3 years ago
10

The impairment rule for goodwill involves how many steps?(a)1(b)2(c)3(d)4

Business
1 answer:
Kobotan [32]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: 2 steps

Explanation: While calculating impairment of goodwill following steps should be taken :-

1.In the first step the fair value of the goodwill is compared with its carrying value.

2. In the second step, if the fair value comes to be lower than the carrying value, then it is concluded that there is an impairment and then it is computed accordingly.

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A temporary 0% APR is a good way to attract new credit card customers. This type of APR is known as:
beks73 [17]

Answer:

d) Introductory rate

Explanation:

APR, or annual percentage rate, is the interest rate applied when using a credit card. A credit card company may introduce offers to boost the uptake of credit cards.

One way to increase uptake is through the 0% APR introductory offer.  A temporal  0% APR  means no interest will be charged for the use of the credit card for a time as determined by the credit card company. To take advantage of this offer, a customer must pay the minimum payments due on the statement.

8 0
3 years ago
A Deductible is what
Artyom0805 [142]
B the amount of loss you pay 
 
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3 years ago
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Sauron [17]

Answer: length- roads, yard stick, square footage in a room

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3 years ago
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Tickets for the historical review of ballroom dancing at the Portsmouth Music Hall cost $42 for the main-floor seats and $25 for
const2013 [10]

Answer:

(a) The cost in dollars of all the main-floor seats that were sold: 42m + 25b. (b) The total number of seats that were sold for the performance: m+b.

Explanation:

Its understood that 1 tickect is equal to 1 seat, therefore the number of seats = number of tickets regardless of the type of seat. With this assumption, the algebraic expressions can be done.

7 0
3 years ago
You are given the following information about a portfolio you are to manage. For the long term, you are bullish, but you think t
Ira Lisetskai [31]

Answer:

sell 1.714

Explanation:

The computation of the number of contract buy or sold to hedge the position is shown below:

As we know that

Number of contracts = Hedge Ratio    

Hedge Ratio = Change in Portfolio Value ÷ Profit on one future contract

where,

Change in the value of the portfolio is

For that we need to do following calculations

Expected Drop in Index is

= (1200 - 1400) ÷ 1400    

= -14.29%    

And, Expected Loss on the portfolio is

= Beta × Expected index drop

= 0.60 × (-14.29%)    

= -8.57%    

So, the change is

= 1000000 × (-8.57%)

= -$85,700  

And, the profit is

= 200 × 250 multiplier

= 50,000

So, the hedging position is

= -$85,700 ÷ 50,000      

= -1.714  

This reflects the selling position

3 0
3 years ago
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