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andrew11 [14]
2 years ago
9

Global Exporters wants to raise $31 million to expand its business. To accomplish this, it plans to sell 20-year, $1,000 face va

lue, semiannual coupon bonds. The bonds will be priced to yield 7.75 percent and coupon rate of 6.2 percent. What is the minimum number of bonds it must sell to raise the money it needs
Business
1 answer:
yanalaym [24]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Min number required = 36742.44878 rounded off to 36743 bonds

Explanation:

To calculate the minimum number of bonds that must be sold, we first need to calculate the bonds price.

To calculate the price of the bond today, we will use the formula for the price of the bond. We assume that the interest rate provided is stated in annual terms. As the bond is a semi annual bond, the coupon payment, number of periods and semi annual YTM will be,

Coupon Payment (C) = 1,000 * 0.062 * 6/12  = $31

Total periods (n) = 20 * 2 = 40

r or YTM = 0.0775 * 6/12 = 0.03875 or 3.875%

The formula to calculate the price of the bonds today is attached.

Bond Price = 31 * [( 1 - (1+0.03875)^-40) / 0.03875]  + 1000 / (1+0.03875)^40

Bond Price = $843.7107767 rounded off to $843.71

The bonds will sell at a price of $843.71 today.

So the minimum number of bonds that must be sold is,

Min number required = 31,000,000 / 843.7107767

Min number required = 36742.44878 rounded off to 36743 bonds

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Respond to the following comments:
MakcuM [25]

Answer:

Comment for statement A -  The firm must still compare the IRR with the opportunity cost of capital when using the IRR rule. Therefore, even with the IRR method, the   appropriate discount rate must still be specified.

Comment for statement B - There should be a higher discount rate on risky cash flows than the rate used to discount less risky cash flows.

Making use of the payback rule is equivalent to using the NPV rule with a zero discount rate for cash flows before the payback period and an infinite discount rate for cash flows thereafter.

Explanation:

a)

“I like the IRR rule. I can use it to rank projects without having to specify a discount rate”

The firm must still compare the IRR with the opportunity cost of capital when using the IRR rule. Therefore, even with the IRR method, the   appropriate discount rate must still be specified.

b.

“I like the payback rule. As long as the minimum payback period is short, the rule makes sure that the company takes no borderline projects. That reduces risk”

There should be a higher discount rate on risky cash flows than the rate used to discount less risky cash flows.

Making use of the payback rule is equivalent to using the NPV rule with a zero discount rate for cash flows before the payback period and an infinite discount rate for cash flows thereafter.

5 0
3 years ago
Your broker charges a commission of 5.1% of the cost of the stock you so if you sell a batch of stock worth 2,617,75 how much co
dmitriy555 [2]

Answer:

a. $133.51

Explanation:

Selling the stock for a relative amount of money would result in a total price of

$133.51.

I also took the test on e2020

5 0
2 years ago
American​ Exploration, Inc., a natural gas​ producer, is trying to decide whether to revise its target capital structure. Curren
Marat540 [252]

Answer:

a) 9.00 %

b) 7.80 %

c) yes the weight of the debt increases here is more risk in the investment as the debt payment are mandatory and failing to do so result in bankruptcy while the stock can wait to receive dividends if the income statement are good enough

d) 9.00  %

e) The increase in debt may lñead to an increase in return of the stockholders if they consider the stock riskier than before and will raise their return until the WACC equalize at the initial point beforethe trade-off occurs

Explanation:

a)

WACC = K_e(\frac{E}{E+D}) + K_d(1-t)(\frac{D}{E+D})

Ke 0.12

Equity weight 0.5

Kd(1-t) = after tax cost of debt = 0.06

Debt Weight = 0.5

WACC = 0.12(0.5) + 0.06(0.5)

WACC 9.00000%

c)

WACC = K_e(\frac{E}{E+D}) + K_d(1-t)(\frac{D}{E+D})

Ke 0.12

Equity weight 0.3

Kd(1-t) = after tax cost of debt = 0.06

Debt Weight 0.7

WACC = 0.12(0.3) + 0.06(0.7)

WACC 7.80000%

d)

WACC = K_e(\frac{E}{E+D}) + K_d(1-t)(\frac{D}{E+D})

<em>Ke 0.16</em>

Equity weight 0.3

Kd(1-t) = after tax cost of debt = 0.06

Debt Weight 0.7

WACC = 0.16(0.3) + 0.06(0.7)

WACC 9.00000%

3 0
3 years ago
One bank offers a 2% variable rate loan, while a competitor offers a 3% fixed rate loan over the same period. It is likely bette
vodomira [7]

Answer:

The problem with variable rates is that they vary, i.e., they might unexpectedly increase and the increase might be pretty significant. One of the main factors leading to the Great Recession was the housing bubble and the increase in mortgage interest rates. Normally, interest rates tend to increase, they might sometimes decrease, but generally they only go up and up.

Even though the fixed interest rate might be higher, it will not change and that  guarantees that you will always pay the same amount and that you can prepare your personal budget to cover it.

5 0
2 years ago
I hope that if you graduate, what can you do for this company better?
Fed [463]

Answer:

I be confident for your company

3 0
2 years ago
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