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ira [324]
3 years ago
10

When Patey Pontoons issued 6% bonds on January 1, 2018, with a face amount of $600,000, the market yield for bonds of similar ri

sk and maturity was 7%. The bonds mature December 31, 2021 (4 years). Interest is paid semiannually on June 30 and December 31. (FV of $1, PV of $1, FVA of $1, PVA of $1, FVAD of $1 and PVAD of $1) (Use appropriate factor(s) from the tables provided.)
Required:
1. Determine the price of the bonds at January 1, 2018.
2. Prepare the journal entry to record their issuance by Patey on January 1, 2018.
3. Prepare an amortization schedule that determines interest at the effective rate each period.
4. Prepare the journal entry to record interest on June 30, 2018.
5. What is the amount related to the bonds that Patey will report in its balance sheet at December 31, 2018

Business
1 answer:
miskamm [114]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Follows are the solution to this question:

Explanation:

Some of the missing data is defined in the attached file, please find it.

Bond problem rates  

Diagram values are based on the following:

N = 4\times 2 \\\\

    = 8 \ Years \\

i = 10.00 \% \times  \frac{1}{2} \\\\

  = 5.00 \% \\

\left\begin{array}{ccc} Cash \ Flow&\ \ \ \ \ \ \ Table \ Value  \times  Amount& \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ =  Present \ Value\\ Principal  &0.676839 \times  \$ 600,000&    =\$ 406,104 \\ Semi-annual \ interest& 6.463213  \times \$ 18,000 &   =\$ 116,337\end{array}\right \\

Bond issuance price                                                                    

Timetable for bond amortization:  

please find the attachment.

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Miller Corporation has a premium bond making semiannual payments. The bond pays a coupon of 10 percent, has a YTM of 8 percent,
Degger [83]

Answer:

          Miller Bond:                    

Today:      1,166.63

1-year       1,159.83

4-years     1,135.90

9-years     1,081.11

13-years   1,018.86

14-years  1,000 (maturity)

Modigliani Bond

Today:     851.01

1-year      856.25

4-years    875.38

9-years     922.78

13-years   981.41

14-years  1,000 (maturity)

Explanation:

The present value will be the discount coupon payment and maturirty at the YTM rate:

<u>Miller Bond:</u>

The coupon payment are calcualte as ordinary annuity

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 50.00 (1,000 x 10% / 2)

time      28 (14 years x 2 payment per year)

rate   0.04 (8% YTM / 2 payment per year)

50 \times \frac{1-(1+0.04)^{-28} }{0.04} = PV\\

PV $833.1532

While Maturity, using the lump sum formula

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity  $1,000.00

time   28 semesters

rate  0.04

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.04)^{28} } = PV  

PV   333.48

PV coupon $833.1532  +PV maturity  $333.4775  = Total $1,166.6306

For the subsequent time we must adjust t

in one year, there will be 26 payment until maturity

50 \times \frac{1-(1+0.04)^{-26} }{0.04} = PV\\

PVcoupon $799.1385

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.04)^{26} } = PV  

PVmaturity   360.69

Total $1,159.8277

As the bond get closer to maturity it will get closer to face value until maturity when it will equalize it.

<u>We recalculate the same formula with values of:</u>

in 4-year : then 10 years to maturity t = 20

in 9-years: then 5 years to maturity t= 10

in 13-years: 1 year to maturity t = 2

at 14 years: is maturity date so equals the face value of 1,000

<em>Remember:</em> there are two payment per year.

Same process will be done with Modigliani bond:

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 1,000 x 8% / 2 payment per year : 40.00

time: 14 years x 2 payment per year = 28 payment

rate 10% annual rate /2 = 0.05

40 \times \frac{1-(1+0.05)^{-28} }{0.05} = PV\\

PV coupon $595.9251

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity $ 1,000.00

time   28 semester

rate  0.05

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.05)^{28} } = PV  

PV  maturity 255.09

PV coupon $595.9251  + PV maturity  $255.0936 = Total $851.0187

and then we calcualte for the same values of t we are asked for the Miller bond.

8 0
3 years ago
You can insure a $42,000 diamond for its total value by paying a premium of D dollars. If the probability of loss in a given yea
ella [17]

Answer:

E(X) =\sum_{i=1}^n X_i P(X_i)

Replacing the values that we have:

1 = 0.98*a + 0.02(a-42) = 0.98a +0.02a -0.84

And solving for a we got:

1.84 = a

So then the premium value for the insurance on this case should be 1840 dollars.

Explanation:

For this case we can define the random variable X as the gain ( in thousand of dollars) of insurance company

We assume that the premium clase charge and amount of a to the company and we know from the info given that:

p(X=a) = 1-0.02 = 0.98

p(X = a-42) = 0.02

E(X) = 1 represent the expected gain in thousand of dollars

The expected value of a random variable X is the n-th moment about zero of a probability density function f(x) if X is continuous, or the weighted average for a discrete probability distribution, if X is discrete.

And using the definition for a discrete random variable we know that :

E(X) =\sum_{i=1}^n X_i P(X_i)

Replacing the values that we have:

1 = 0.98*a + 0.02(a-42) = 0.98a +0.02a -0.84

And solving for a we got:

1.84 = a

So then the premium value for the insurance on this case should be 1840 dollars.

5 0
3 years ago
If improvements occur with any of the four factors of production what occurs with the real output?
hammer [34]

Answer:

c. it shifts to the right

Explanation:

Output refers to the total production in the economy. It is equivalent to the total quantity of goods and services supplied in the economy per period. The total output is equivalent to the aggregate supply. Therefore, the output curve will behave as the aggregate supply curve.

Favorable economic conditions increase the total output by firms. Improvement in factors of production will have the same effect as improvement in technology or reduction in taxes. A fall in the price of outputs will encourage more firms to produce more, making the curve to shift to the right.

7 0
3 years ago
One of the long-run effects of higher government budget deficits is growth in the economy's private sector at the same time the
saveliy_v [14]

Complete Question:

One of the long-run effects of higher government budget deficits:

A. is growth in the economy's private sector at the same time the government sector shrinks.

B. a redistribution of real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) away from government-provided goods and toward more privately provided goods. C. a fall in the equilibrium price level.

D. an increase in the government's share of the nation's economic activity.

Answer:

D. an increase in the government's share of the nation's economic activity.

Explanation:

One of the long-run effects of higher government budget deficits is an increase in the government's share of the nation's economic activity because it would be mainly responsible for funding of the economy, thereby causing higher real Gross Domestic Product (GDP).

A government budget deficit arises when government expenses exceed it's revenue.

It usually expresses the financial health of a nation over a period of time.

3 0
3 years ago
Please help me with this I will give you brainiest if you help me correctly
Novosadov [1.4K]

Answer:

niiggarrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrr

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
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