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lions [1.4K]
4 years ago
15

Dixon Construction Company was awarded a contract to construct an interchange at the junction of U.S. 94 and Highway 30 at a tot

al contract price of $11,800,000. The estimated total costs to complete the project were $8,800,000. a. Make the entry to record construction costs of $5,104,000, on construction in process to date. (Credit account titles are automatically indented when amount is entered. Do not indent manually. If no entry is required, select "No Entry" for the account titles and enter 0 for the amounts.) Account Titles and Explanation Debit Credit b. Make the entry to record progress billings of $2,980,000. (Credit account titles are automatically indented when amount is entered. Do not indent manually. If no entry is required, select "No Entry" for the account titles and enter 0 for the amounts.) Account Titles and Explanation Debit Creditc. Make the entry to recognize the profit that can be recognized to date, on a percentage-of-completion basis. (Credit account titles are automatically indented when amount is entered. Do not indent manually. If no entry is required, select "No Entry" for the account titles and enter 0 for the amounts.) Account Titles and Explanation Debit Credit\
Business
1 answer:
Ostrovityanka [42]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The Journal entries are as follows:

(i) Construction in progress A/c Dr. $5,104,000

                    To cash A/c                                      $5,104,000

(To record the construction costs)

(ii) Accounts receivables A/c Dr. $2,980,000

              To billings A/c                                    $2,980,000

(To record the progress billings)

(iii) Cost of goods sold A/c Dr. $5,104,000

Construction in progress A/c Dr. $1,740,000

             To revenues A/c                                $6,844,000

(To record the revenues)

Workings:

Revenues :

= (Cost incurred to date ÷ Expected costs to complete) × Contract value

= ($5,104,000 ÷ $8,800,000) × $11,800,000

= 0.58 × $11,800,000

= $6,844,000

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Opportunity cost __. A) is always the value of the next best forgone opportunity B) can only be measured as a paid cost C) does
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Answer:

A) is always the value of the next best forgone opportunity

Explanation:

Opportunity cost is always the value of the next best forgone opportunity.

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David works as a door-to-door salesperson for a company that manufactures electrical appliances. He has just met an elderly coup
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Kohl Co, provides warranties for many of its products. The January 1, 2019, balance of the Estimated Warranty Liability account
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Answer and Explanation:

The computation is shown below;

a. For Warranty Expense

= Sales × Estimated Warranty Percentage%  

= $4,144,400 × 0.87%%

= $36,056.28

b)

The amount that should be reported is

Opening Balance of Estimated Warranty Liability Jan. 1, 2019 $42,635

Less: Actual warranty costs in 2019 ($26,750)

Add: Warranty expense accrued in 2019 $35,056

Closing  Balance of Estimated Warranty Liability Dec. 31, 2019 $50,941

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3 years ago
Brain Boost Inc. is a leading educational toy company. Competitors across the globe have failed to imitate Brain Boost's product
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Answer:

Resource Immobility

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4 years ago
Suppose that the annual interest rate is 2.0 percent in the United States and 4 percent in Germany, and that the spot exchange r
Anuta_ua [19.1K]

Answer:

$7,000

Explanation:

Using the covered interest rate parity formula

No Arbitrage Forward rate = Spot Rate * (1 + RD)/ (1 + RF)

          = 1.6 * (1 + 2%)/ (1 + 4%) = 1.6 * 1.02 / 1.04 = $1.57 approximately

However, the actual forward rate = $1.58/€

Hence, there is an arbitrage opportunity.

Suppose an arbitrager borrows 1,000,000 in the United States at 2%.

Thus, after one year, he has to pay back 1,000,000 * (1 + 2%) = $1,020,000

He converts 1,000,000 into Euros at the spot exchage rate of $1.60/€.

Thus he gets 1,000,000/1.6 = €625,000

The arbitrager now invests this money in Germany at 4%.

At the same time, he enters into a forward contract to convert the money that he will get at the end of 1 year into US Dollars at a forward rate of $1.58/€

After 1 year, he gets 625,000 * (1 + 4%) = €650,000

He converts this money into USD at the exchange rate of $1.58/€ (at which he entered the forward contract)

Thus he gets 650,000 * 1.58 = $1,027,000

Amount he has to pay back = $1,000,000 * (1 + 2%) = $1,020,000

Net cash flow for the year through this arbitrage = $1,027,000 - $1,020,000 = $7,000

3 0
3 years ago
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