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mafiozo [28]
3 years ago
9

I need help with this..can u help me??

Mathematics
1 answer:
Marina CMI [18]3 years ago
4 0

I'm not seeing a picture?

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Which of these equations represents a line parallel to the line 2x + y = 6?
laila [671]

Answer:

D) y= -2X+1

Step-by-step explanation:

All of the lines are perpendicular to the line 2x+y=6 except for D) y= -2X+1.

8 0
3 years ago
A farmer has 20 acres to plant in wheat and barley. He has to plant at least 15 acres. Wheat costs $200 per acre to plant and ba
maria [59]

Answer:

  • 16 acres of barley only (no acres of wheat)

Step-by-step explanation:

A graph shows cost of planting puts an upper limit on planted area. The lower limit is provided by the requirement to plant at least 15 acres. The vertices of the feasible solution region are ...

  (wheat acres, barley acres) = {(0, 15), (0, 16), (3, 12)}

The profit associated with these scenarios will be ...

  for (0, 16): 16·350 = 5600

  for (3, 12): 3·450 +12·350 = 1350 +4200 = 5550

To maximize profit, the farmer should plant 16 acres of barley.

4 0
4 years ago
Use the discriminant to determine how many real number solutions exist for the quadratic equation –4j2 + 3j – 28 = 0. A. 3 B. 2
Zepler [3.9K]

Answer:

C. 0

Step-by-step explanation:

–4j^2 + 3j – 28 = 0

The discriminant is b^2-4ac  if >0 we have 2 real solutions

                                                   =0  we have 1 real solutions

                                                   <0 we have 2 imaginary solutions

a = -4, b =3  c = -28

b^2 -4ac

(3)^2 - 4(-4)*(-28)

9 - 16(28)

9 -448

This will be negative so we have two imaginary solutions.

Therefore we have 0 real solutions

5 0
4 years ago
HELP TIMED TEST!!!
sdas [7]
B is the correct answer
7 0
3 years ago
If the die were to be rolled 6000 times, would we expect to obtain exactly 1000 '2's? explain your answer.
ludmilkaskok [199]
The probability of that occurring is 0%. There are 6 sides in a typical dice, which means the probability of rolling a 2 is 1/6th. (1/6)^1000 will give you the probability of rolling a 2 exactly 1000 times. (1/6)^1000 equates to 0%.
7 0
2 years ago
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