Solve for x: - 4 + x

Imagine that you are plotting points on a coordinate plane. Each axis is labeled with integers from −5 to 5. Explain how you wou

liraira [26]

Answer:

Sample Response: Start at the origin. The x-coordinate is −2½ , so move left 2½ units. −2½ is halfway between −3 and −2. The y-coordinate is −4, so move down 4 units. Plot the point.

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0

2 years ago

An automated egg carton loader has a 1% probability of cracking an egg, and a customer will complain if more than one egg per do

vaieri [72.5K]

Answer:

a) Binomial distribution B(n=12,p=0.01)

b) P=0.007

c) P=0.999924

d) P=0.366

Step-by-step explanation:

a) The distribution of cracked eggs per dozen should be a binomial distribution B(12,0.01), as it can model 12 independent events.

b) To calculate the probability of having a carton of dozen eggs with more than one cracked egg, we will first calculate the probabilities of having zero or one cracked egg.

$P(k=0)=\binom{12}{0}p^0(1-p)^{12}=1*1*0.99^{12}=1*0.886=0.886\\\\P(k=1)=\binom{12}{1}p^1(1-p)^{11}=12*0.01*0.99^{11}=12*0.01*0.895=0.107$

Then,

$P(k>1)=1-(P(k=0)+P(k=1))=1-(0.886+0.107)=1-0.993=0.007$

c) In this case, the distribution is B(1200,0.01)

$P(k=0)=\binom{1200}{0}p^0(1-p)^{12}=1*1*0.99^{1200}=1* 0.000006 = 0.000006 \\\\ P(k=1)=\binom{1200}{1}p^1(1-p)^{1199}=1200*0.01*0.99^{1199}=1200*0.01* 0.000006 \\\\P(k=1)= 0.00007\\\\\\P(k\leq1)=0.000006+0.000070=0.000076\\\\\\P(k>1)=1-P(k\leq 1)=1-0.000076=0.999924$

d) In this case, the distribution is B(100,0.01)

We can calculate this probability as the probability of having 0 cracked eggs in a batch of 100 eggs.

$P(k=0)=\binom{100}{0}p^0(1-p)^{100}=0.99^{100}=0.366$

5 0

3 years ago

What sets does radical 12 belong to

adoni [48]

Step-by-step explanation: The square root of 12 is represented in the radical form as √12 which is equal to 2√3. Since, 2√3 cannot be further simplified, hence such roots are called surds.

3 0

2 years ago

How many pennies could you have if: When you Break de Pennies into groups of 2, you have 1 penny left over, AND when you break t

MariettaO [177]

Answer:

The answer is 31 pennies

Step-by-step explanation:

we have to find a number that gives a remainder of 1 when divided by both 2, 3 and 5.

The easiest way to do this is to list the factors of 5, add 1 to it, and test them until we find the one with a remainder of 1 by all three divisors. This is done as follows:

1) factor: 5 (+1) = 6

6 ÷ 2 = 3 remainder 0

6 ÷ 3 = 2 remainder 0

since there is a remainder of 0, when divided by 3, 6 is wrong

2) factor; 10 (+1) = 11

11 ÷ 3 = 3 remainder 2 ( 11 is not the correct answer

3) factor : 15 (+1) = 16

16 ÷ 2 = 8 remainder 0 ( 16 is not the correct answer

4) factor : 20(+1) = 21

21 ÷ 3 = 7 remainder 0 ( 21 is wrong)

5) factor : 25(+1) = 26

26 ÷ 2 = 13 remainder 0 ( 26 is wrong)

6) factor : 30(+1) = 31

31 ÷ 2 = 15 Remainder 1

31 ÷ 3 = 10 Remainder 1

31 ÷ 5 = 6 Remainder 1

since all three divisors give a remainder of 1, the correct answer is 31

Therefore you have 31 pwnnies

6 0

3 years ago

Identify the slope and y-intercept of the function y=11x+6

balu736 [363]

The slope-intercept form is y=mx+b y = m x + b , where m is the slope and b is the y-intercept. Find the values of m and b using the form y=mx+b y = m x + b . The slope of the line is the value of m , and the y-intercept is the value of b .

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Solve for x: - 4 + x > 5