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Nonamiya [84]
3 years ago
14

2. Skip and Peggy are brother and sister and they fight about everything. Skip says that perfectly competitive firms maximize pr

ofit where marginal revenue equals marginal cost. Peggy says perfectly competitive firms maximize profit where price equals marginal cost. Settle this sibling rivalry once and for all.
Business
1 answer:
finlep [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: They are both right.

Explanation:

Firms in every market will always maximise profit where their Marginal Revenue equals Marginal Cost because at this point, resources are being fully utilized. This is therefore no different in a Perfectly competitive market so Skip is correct.

Peggy is also correct however because in a Perfectly Competitive market, the demand curve is perfectly elastic. This creates a situation where the Price, Marginal Revenue and Average Revenue are all the same and represent the demand curve as well.

With the Price being the same as the Marginal Revenue in a Perfectly competitive firm, that means that where the Price equals Marginal Cost is where the Marginal Revenue equals Marginal Cost as well so indeed perfectly competitive firms maximize profit where price equals marginal cost.

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Please help I'll give brainliest
zimovet [89]
In case of legal issues
3 0
3 years ago
Jessica purchased a home on January 1, 2018 for $580,000 by making a down payment of $230,000 and financing the remaining $350,0
Ann [662]

Answer:

$32,600

Explanation:

Calculation to determine her itemized deduction if she used the proceeds of the second loan to finish the basement in her home and landscape her yard

Using this formula

Itemized deduction =(Financing amount * 6 percent)+(Additional amount borrowed*interest rate of 8 percent)

Let plug in the formula

Itemized deduction=( $350,000 * 6 percent)+($145,000 *8 percent)

Itemized deduction=($21,000+$11,600)

Itemized deduction=$32,600

Therefore her itemized deduction if she used the proceeds of the second loan to finish the basement in her home and landscape her yard wi be $32,600

5 0
3 years ago
Which of the following should take place in the completing stage when writing an instant message?a. Creating a content outline b
antoniya [11.8K]

Answer:

C. Proofreading

Explanation:

Option A is wrong. In an instant message, no one is trying to create a content outline as it is not a letter or assignment.

Option B is incorrect. An instant message can be sent to many people at a time. Therefore, maximizing the number of receivers is the main idea while writing an instant message.

Option D is also not correct. Acronyms are hard to understand. Writing acronyms in an instant message will be challenging for the receivers.

Option E cannot be the answer as an instant message can be sent anytime. Therefore, it can be increased.

<em>Option C</em> is correct because while writing an instant message, proofreading is a necessary stage. If anything misspelled or miswritten, the explanation will change.

5 0
3 years ago
OceanGate sells external hard drives for $260 each. Its total fixed costs are $30 million, and its variable costs per unit are $
Svetach [21]

Answer:

a. in order to calculate this we must assume that the economy entered a recession:

degree of operating leverage = [($20 - $70)/$70] / [($260 - $520)/$520] = -0.7143 / -0.5 = 1.43

b. $14 million

Explanation:

strong economy:

total sales $520 million

<u>variable costs $420 million</u>

gross profit $100 million

<u>fixed costs $30 million</u>

EBIT $70 million

<u>income taxes $21 million</u>

net income $49 million

weak economy:

total sales $260 million

<u>variable costs $210 million</u>

gross profit $50 million

<u>fixed costs $30 million</u>

EBIT $20 million

<u>income taxes $6 million</u>

net income $14 million

7 0
3 years ago
Custom Cars purchased $39,000 of fixed assets two years ago that are classified as 5-year MACRS property. The MACRS rates are 20
maw [93]

Answer:

The after-tax cash flow (after-tax salvage value) from the sale is $18,941.20

Explanation:

The computation of the after-tax cash flow is shown below:

= Purchase of fixed asset - depreciation charged - sale value of machine + profit on sale - tax rate

= $39,000 - ($39,000 × 20% + 32%) - $19,000 + $280 -  21%

= $39,000 - $20,280 - $19,000 + 280 - $58.80

= $18,720 + $280 - $58.80

= $18,941.20

The $18,720 reflect the Written down value of the fixed asset which come from

= $39,000 - $20,280

3 0
3 years ago
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