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RUDIKE [14]
3 years ago
9

Garcel, Inc. held unfinished inventory at a cost of $85,000 with a sales value of $125,000. The inventory will cost $10,500 to c

omplete. The normal profit margin is 30% of sales. The replacement cost of the inventory was $75,000. If Garcel uses the last-in, first-out method to determine inventory cost, what amount should Garcel report as inventory on its balance sheet
Business
1 answer:
fiasKO [112]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Explanation:

The following information can be gotten from the question:

Net realizable value (NRV) will be:

= $125,000 - $10,500

= $114,500

Normal profit will be:

= $114,500 - (30% × $125,000)

= $114,500 - $37,500

= $77,000

The amount should Garcel report as inventory on its balance sheet should be $77,000.

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Recently, the owner of a trader joe's franchise decided to change how she compensated her top manager. last year, she paid him a
Wewaii [24]

Net earning for owner after payment to top manager, last year = $(130,000 - 65,000) = $65,000

This year, out of the forecast profit of $270,000, Owner has to pay to the top manager = $35,000 + 16% x $270,000

= $(35,000 + 43,200) = $78,200

Net money earned by owner this year = $(270,000 - 78,200) = $191,800

Change in net owner's earning = $(191,800 - 65,000) = $126,800

8 0
3 years ago
U.S. Treasury deposits at the Federal Reserve Banks are:A. A liability of the Federal Reserve Banks and the U.S. TreasuryB. An a
Liula [17]

Answer:

D. An asset of the Federal Reserve Banks and a liability for the U.S. Treasury

Explanation:

For all demand deposits that banks receive, a percentage share must be deposited with Federal Reseve. This is called compulsory withdrawal and serves to ensure the solubility of the financial system.

For banks, this represents an asset as it is an amount they will have to receive when the Fed authorizes it. For the US Treasury, this represents a liability, which is a future payment obligation, as these amounts will be returned to banks in the future.

4 0
3 years ago
Brett, the manager at Warson’s Diner, plans to promote Keisha, one of the waitresses, to the position of an assistant manager. H
Sholpan [36]

Answer:

a)Brett has a cause of action against Warson's Diner for retaliatory discharge under Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964.

Explanation:

From the question, we are informed about Brett, the manager at Warson’s Diner, who plans to promote Keisha, one of the waitresses, to the position of an assistant manager. We are also told that the owner, being racially biased, prevents him from doing so and in the end , Brett gets fired

What holds true in this scenario described above is that Brett has a cause of action against Warson's Diner for retaliatory discharge under Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964.

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. Is a law, of Act of 1964 that oversee any form of discrimination against employee of an organization and shield them from been discriminated because of race they belong to, their sex , their National origin an so on . The law doesn't only forbid discrimination that is intentional, but all actions that speak discrimination wether intentional or not.

7 0
3 years ago
What is the basic difference between liability insurance and collision insurance?
Alla [95]
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Collision insurance covers damage that occurs as a result of a collision with another vehicle or object. This coverage applies regardless of who is at fault in the accident. Collision coverage will handle damage from hitting a post, tree, curb or other various objects.


</span>
5 0
3 years ago
A 4% S/A coupon bond with 4 coupons remaining has a BEY of 8.00%. You buy the bond a little over a month before you get the firs
ElenaW [278]

A 4% S/A coupon bond with 4 coupons remaining has a BEY of 8.00%,  is mathematically given as

DP=95.696. Option D is correct

<h3>What is the dirty price of this bond?</h3>

Generally, dirty price is simply defined as It's important to note that a "dirty price" is simply a bond pricing quotation that takes into account both the coupon rate and any interest that has already accumulated on the bond.

In conclusion, Dirty price

DP = (Clean price +  interest Accrued)

Therefore

DP=0.80*(4%*100/2)+2*(1-(1+4%)^(-3.20))/(4%)+100/(1+4%)^(3.20)

DP=95.696

CQ

A4% S/A coupon bond with 4 coupons remaining has a BEY of 8.00%. You buy the bond a little over a month before you get the first coupon. Specifically, the fraction of the 6-month period that has already elapsed is 0.80.

Calculate the dirty price of this bond.

O 81.370

85.216

93.471

o 95.696

Read more about dirty price

brainly.com/question/14316550

#SPJ1

8 0
2 years ago
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