Answer:
36,000 would be 20 percent. 72,000 would be 40 percent.
Step-by-step explanation:
You just divide 36,000 by 180,000
Answer:
<u>Q/ Draw a line ; Ans; </u>

*explain ; We put the 5 in the denominator and 5 multiply 1 + 4 so equal 9 so the choice 9/5 .
Ans; 7/3—> 2 1/3
*explain ; We put the 3 in the denominator and 3 multiply 2 + 1 so equal 7 so the choice 7/3 .
Ans; 12/10 —> 1 1/5
*explain; simple (12 and 10) ÷ 2 so equal 6/5
We put the 5 in the denominator and 5 multiply 1 + 1 so equal 6 so the choice 6/5 =12/10 .

<u>Q/ Compare the fractions;Ans;</u>

* explain; 2/3 = 0.66 and 14/6=2.33 so 2.33 greater from 0.66 so 14/6 greater from 2/3 .

* explain; 3/8 = 0.375 and 8/3=2.666 so 2.666 greater from 0.375 so 8/3 greater from 3/8 .

* explain; 2 1/6 —> We put the 6 in the denominator and 6 multiply 2 + 1 so equal 13 so equal 13/6
13/6 = 2.16 and 5/9=0.55 so 2.16 greater from 0.55 so 13/6 = 2 1/6 greater from 5/9 .
<u>Q/Add; Ans;</u>


<u>Q/Subtract; Ans;</u>


<u>Q/ Multiply;Ans;</u>


<u>Q/Divide;Ans;</u>


I hope I helped you^_^
Answer:
welp ok
Step-by-step explanation:
You have to distribute 3x+1 over the other parentheses
3x(2x^2 +4x-3) + 1• ( 2x^2 +4x-3)=
6x^3 +12x^2 -9x + 2x^2 +4x-3 =
Combine like terms
6x^3 +14x^2 -5x -3
Answer: The cause of exponential decay. Sowwy if im wrong
Step-by-step explanation:
An inverse variation function is not the best model because the data points show an exponential decay. The fact that this is true for ALL of the points shown indicates we have an inverse variation of the form x*y = k where k = 60 in this case. ... For any inverse variation, as x increases, y will decrease (and vice versa).