Answer:
dont listen to person above me . it's a scam
4(6)-6/(6) = 23
Answer: 23
Answer:
it is -11 because use the cauculator lol
Answer:
61.84%
Step-by-step explanation:
Let the cost of the box be x. Since the price of the box and the pen is Rs 80, the pen's price can be represented as 80 - x. The box is sold at a ten percent profit, and an added ten percent is equal to 1.1. Therefore, the price the box sells at is 1.1(x). A 20% loss is the same a keeping 80% or multiplying by 0.8. This means the pen sold at 0.8(80 - x). Now, we are given the box went for Rs 28 more than the pen, so we can create an equation:
1.1x = 0.8(80 - x) + 28
We can simplify and solve:
1.1x = 64 - 0.8x + 28
1.9x = 92
x = 92/1.9
x = 920/19
The cost of the box after the increase would be 1.1(920/19) and the pen would be 0.8(80 - 920/19).
The sum of these two can be written as a percent x of 80.
80x = 0.8(80 - 920/19) + 1.1(920/19)
80x = 64 - 0.8(920/19) + 1.1(920/9)
80x = 64 - 0.3(920/19)
80x = 64 - 276/19
80x = 940/19
x = 940/1520
x = 0.6184
This is 61.84%
Average of 0,444 in 45 battings can be wirtten as:
45 * 44,4% = 19,98
After rounding it up it'll give us 20 and that's exactly how many hits Karen got.
