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MakcuM [25]
4 years ago
10

Sumner sold equipment that it uses in its business for $30,800. Sumner bought the equipment a few years ago for $79,600 and has

claimed $39,800 of depreciation expense. Assuming that this is Sumner's only disposition during the year, what is the amount and character of Sumner's gain or loss?
Business
1 answer:
liq [111]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The correct answer is loss of $9,000 and section 1231.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

Purchase amount of equipment = $79,600

Depreciation expense = $39,800

Sold value = $30,800

So, to calculate the amount of gain or loss we use the following formula:

Gain or loss = Sold value - ( purchase value - depreciation expense)

=  $30,800 - ( $79,600 - $ 39,800 )

=  $30,800 - 39,800

= -$9,000

As the value is in negative, it shows loss.

Hence, It shows the loss of $9,000 under section 1231.

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Answer:

Explanation:

No, He deserves a peaceful inauguration.

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Why is brainly such a stupid app? Why did I have to get my email address? Why is my question not popping up? Where's the answer?
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Read 2 more answers
Assume that the yen/dollar exchange rate quoted in London at 3:00 p.m. is ×120 = $1, and the New York yen/dollar exchange rate a
Viefleur [7K]

Answer:

This question lacks answers

A. currency swap.

B. arbitrage.

C. backwardation.

D. straddle.

<u>The answer is </u><u>b.</u>

Explanation:

Arbitrage is a common practice used to gain profits from inefficient markets. Since most financial markets are inefficient by nature, dealers and similar business entities that have an interest in this kind of business practice.

The profit in arbitrage is based on the <u>imbalance in the two prices</u> on each market respectively. The term is mainly used for financial markets and various financial instruments (securities, bonds, currencies).

In the example above, the dealer becomes an arbitrageur by making a profit from the difference in the yen/dollar exchange rate in two markets (NY and London.)

8 0
3 years ago
Find the present value of $9,000 payable at the end of 4 years, if money may be invested at 4% with interest compounded continuo
natita [175]

Answer:

the present value is $7,669.294

Explanation:

The computation of the present value is shown below:

As we know that

A = Present value × e^(rate × time period)

$9,000 = Present value  ×  e^(0.04 × 4)

Present value = $9,000 ÷ e^0.16

= $9,000 ÷ 1.1735

= $7,669.294

Hence, the present value is $7,669.294

We simply applied the above formula so that the correct value could come

And, the same is to be considered

3 0
3 years ago
.Consumers are better off with pricing in the following order: 1)________; 2)________; 3)________.
rosijanka [135]

Answer:

Option (A) is correct.

Explanation:

(i) Competitive market

(ii) Single price monopoly

(iii) perfect price discrimination

Consumer surplus are the highest in the perfectly competitive market conditions as compared to single price monopoly because prices are determined by the market forces and firms are the price taker.

Consumer surplus is zero when there is a perfect price discrimination because price is charged according to the willingness of the consumer.

6 0
4 years ago
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