I don’t even know to be honest only commenting to get some points ....:
Answer:
in the primary market and usually with the assistance of an investment banker.
Explanation:
Primary markets are ones where newly issues securities are sold. When companies seek to gain capital from investors, they issue securities that can be bought buy investors in exchange for capital.
Investment bankers are usually involved in the sale of securities in the primary markets. They obtain the securities on behalf of the investors.
Primary markets are also called new issues market
<h3>The short-run aggregate supply curve shows the relationship between the price level and aggregate expenditure
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Explanation:
A short-run aggregate supply curve (SRAS) is a graphical model that shows the positive relationship between aggregate price level and aggregate production amount supplied in an economy. The short-run aggregate supply curve is sloping upward as the supplied quantity increases as the prices increase.
The short-run aggregate supply curve captures the relationship between the actual output and the price level. True production becomes bigger as the price level increases. As the price level decreases, actual production decreases too.
Answer:
The answer is stated below:
Explanation:
If the SEC and the AICPA, worked altogether in order to share the information, they might have detected the fraud prior. The case states that the Madoff Securities does not required to submit the peer review program to AICPA as Friehling, had recorded that he did not perform or conduct any audits.
Recommendation
1. The policy execution for the exchange of the information among the two firms would be useful to detect the fraud.
2. The PCAOB should spend more resources an attending the hotline of whistle blowing through executing the policies which need certain complaints to be addressed effectively.
3. The firms or company should have done more in order to verify the financial statements assertions, which surrounds the investments. The PCAOB need to execute the policy that require the companies (such as Madoff Securities) to correctly answer the inquiries of the auditor.
Answer:
Amount to be paid = $6,000
Explanation:
Trade discount is the reduction in the list price granted to a buyer. A 40% trade discount implies that Blue would have to pay only 60% of the list price.
The amount due for settlement = 10,000 - (40%× 10,000)= $6,000.
The term 2/10 implies that Jones is entitled to a cash a discount of 2% if it settles its invoice within 10 days following the invoice date. The deadline settlement date to receive the discount would therefore be August 6.
Since the account was settled on September 8 which is later than the deadline date set to qualify for the cash settlement discount, Blue would have to pay $6,000.
Amount to be paid = $6,000
