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koban [17]
3 years ago
11

Please help me I’m so lost

Mathematics
2 answers:
bearhunter [10]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

128

Step-by-step explanation:

Side a

11.314

cm

Area

128

cm²

Diagonal

16

cm

Perimeter

45.255

cm

Gala2k [10]3 years ago
3 0
The side length of the square is 2*((8/2)^.5) = 4cm
The area is 4^2 = 16 cm

See the attached picture. The parts labeled a and b are both the same length since this is a square. And each of them is half of the side length of the square. We can find the length of a and b using the Pythagorean theorem because the 8cm is a hypotenuse of a right triangle. So we find a, and multiply by 2 to get the square side length. Then we square that to get the square area.

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Find the tangent of both angle A and angle B. Ignore what the picture says the numbers are the same.
Elena-2011 [213]
For the angle A we have:
 tan (A) = C.O / C.A
 tan (A) = 10/24
 Simplifying we have:
 tan (A) = 5/12
 For angle B we have:
 tan (B) = C.O / C.A
 tan (B) = 24/10
 Simplifying we have:
 tan (B) = 12/5
 Answer:
 
The tangent of angles A and B is given by:
 
tan (A) = 5/12
 
tan (B) = 12/5
4 0
3 years ago
Rockwell hardness of pins of a certain type is known to have a mean value of 50 and a standard deviation of 1.2.a. If the distri
zalisa [80]

Answer:

a

 P(\= X \ge 51 ) =0.0062

b

P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 0

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that

The mean value is \mu = 50

The standard deviation is  \sigma = 1.2

Considering question a

The sample size is  n = 9

Generally the standard error of the mean is mathematically represented as

      \sigma_x = \frac{\sigma }{\sqrt{n} }

=>   \sigma_x = \frac{ 1.2 }{\sqrt{9} }

=>  \sigma_x = 0.4

Generally the probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 9 pins is at least 51 is mathematically represented as

      P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P( \frac{\= X - \mu }{\sigma_{x}}  \ge \frac{51 - 50 }{0.4 } )

\frac{\= X -\mu}{\sigma }  =  Z (The  \ standardized \  value\  of  \ \= X )

     P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P( Z  \ge 2.5 )

=>   P(\= X \ge 51 ) =1-  P( Z  < 2.5 )

From the z table  the area under the normal curve to the left corresponding to  2.5  is

    P( Z  < 2.5 ) = 0.99379

=> P(\= X \ge 51 ) =1-0.99379

=> P(\= X \ge 51 ) =0.0062

Considering question b

The sample size is  n = 40

   Generally the standard error of the mean is mathematically represented as

      \sigma_x = \frac{\sigma }{\sqrt{n} }

=>   \sigma_x = \frac{ 1.2 }{\sqrt{40} }

=>  \sigma_x = 0.1897

Generally the (approximate) probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 40 pins is at least 51 is mathematically represented as  

       P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P( \frac{\= X - \mu }{\sigma_x}  \ge \frac{51 - 50 }{0.1897 } )

=> P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P(Z  \ge 5.2715  )

=>  P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 1- P(Z < 5.2715  )

From the z table  the area under the normal curve to the left corresponding to  5.2715 and

=>  P(Z < 5.2715  ) = 1

So

   P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 1- 1

=> P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 0

5 0
2 years ago
Can someone help with this question please?
Ilia_Sergeevich [38]

Answer:

D. x = 5

Step-by-step explanation:

I graped the equation on the graph below.

If this answer is correct, please make me Brainliest!

5 0
3 years ago
What is 10% of 100<br><br> PLEASE HELP
Jobisdone [24]
First off, we have to divide 100 by 10 to get 10%. That would be ten. So in conclusion, 10% of 100 is 10
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The bell family’s bill at the restaurant totaled $34.62, and the bells leave the standard tip of 15% of their total bill. How mu
Neporo4naja [7]

Answer

39.81

Step-by-step explanation:

First I converted the percent to a decimal which was 0.15

Then I multiplied 0.15 by 34.62 which was 5.193

Lastly I added 5.193 by 34.62 which was 39.813

I rounded it to 39.81

<u><em>Answer 39.81 </em></u>

8 0
3 years ago
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