Answer:
witch one
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
the probability of no defects in 10 feet of steel = 0.1353
Step-by-step explanation:
GIven that:
A roll of steel is manufactured on a processing line. The anticipated number of defects in a 10-foot segment of this roll is two.
Let consider β to be the average value for defecting
So;
β = 2
Assuming Y to be the random variable which signifies the anticipated number of defects in a 10-foot segment of this roll.
Thus, y follows a poisson distribution as number of defect is infinite with the average value of β = 2
i.e
![Y \sim P( \beta = 2)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=Y%20%5Csim%20P%28%20%5Cbeta%20%3D%202%29)
the probability mass function can be represented as follows:
![\mathtt{P(y) = \dfrac{e^{- \beta} \ \beta^ \ y}{y!}}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cmathtt%7BP%28y%29%20%3D%20%5Cdfrac%7Be%5E%7B-%20%5Cbeta%7D%20%5C%20%5Cbeta%5E%20%5C%20y%7D%7By%21%7D%7D)
where;
y = 0,1,2,3 ...
Hence, the probability of no defects in 10 feet of steel
y = 0
![\mathtt{P(y =0) = \dfrac{e^{- 2} \ 2^ \ 0}{0!}}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cmathtt%7BP%28y%20%3D0%29%20%3D%20%5Cdfrac%7Be%5E%7B-%202%7D%20%5C%202%5E%20%5C%200%7D%7B0%21%7D%7D)
![\mathtt{P(y =0) = \dfrac{0.1353 \times 1}{1}}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cmathtt%7BP%28y%20%3D0%29%20%3D%20%5Cdfrac%7B0.1353%20%20%5Ctimes%201%7D%7B1%7D%7D)
P(y =0) = 0.1353
Answer:
3/10
Step-by-step explanation:
Subtract the sum of 1/3, 4/15 and 1/10 from 1:
10/30 + 8/30 + 3/30 = 21/30, or 7/10
Then: 1 - 7/10 = 3/10
The correct equation should look something like this:
y= -1x - 2
Consider the equation for a line:
y = mx + b,
Where ‘m’ is the slope
Where ‘b’ is the y-intercept.
From there you can plug in your known values for ‘m’ and ‘b’, and get the equation above. If you are still not convinced, I suggest you graph the function and observe its slope and y-intercept.
Hope this helps!