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Tanya [424]
3 years ago
14

Brownley Company has two service departments and two operating (production) departments. The Payroll Department services all thr

ee of the other departments in proportion to the number of employees in each. The Maintenance Department costs are allocated to the two operating departments in proportion to the floor space used by each. Listed below are the operating data for the current period: Service Depts. Production Depts. Payroll Maintenance Cutting AssemblyDirect costs $20,400 $25,500 $76,500 $105,400No. of personnel 15 15 45Sq. ft. of space 10,000 15,000The total cost of operating the Maintenance Department for the current period is:a. $14,280.b. $15,912.c. $25,500.d. $29,580.e. $22,412.
Business
1 answer:
Fittoniya [83]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

d. $29,580.

Explanation:

Note: The data in the question are merged together and they are first sorted and separated as given in the attached file before the question is answered.

Cost individually incurred by Maintenance = $25,500

Share of Payroll Department cost = $20,400 * (15/75) = $4,080

Total Maintenance Cost = $25,500 + $4,080 = $29,580.

Therefore, he total cost of operating the Maintenance Department for the current period is d. $29,580.

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A diverse team will almost always have _____ than a homogeneous team. more extensive external contacts lesser cognitive resource
AfilCa [17]

Answer: more extensive external contacts

Explanation:

Team diversity has to do with the differences that the members of a particular team have. Such differences can be due to religion, nationality, age etc. .

It should be noted that diverse team will almost always have more extensive external contacts than a homogeneous team.

6 0
3 years ago
Chaikin Money Flow is calculated by summing the ADs over the past _____ days and dividing that sum by the total volume over the
antiseptic1488 [7]

Answer:

d. 21, 21

Explanation:

The Chaikin Money Flow is a model (indicator) that was developed by Marc Chaikin in the 1980s and it is typically used by financial institutions or experts to monitor the volume-weighted average of accumulation and distribution of a stock for a specific period of time. Thus, the default or standard period for the Chaikin Money Flow is 21 days

Hence, Chaikin Money Flow is calculated by summing the average of the daily money flow (ADs) over the past 21 days and dividing that sum by the total volume over the past 21 days.

7 0
2 years ago
Carlson Company uses a predetermined rate to apply overhead. At the beginning of the year, Carlson estimated its overhead costs
____ [38]

Answer:

The estimated rate based on labour hour==6

The  actual rate based on labour hour=6.08

The rate based on machine hour=24

The rate based on machine hour= 22.66

Explanation:

Given that Carlson estimated its overhead costs to be $240,000,direct labor hours at 40,000 and machine hours at 10,000 as well as the actual overhead costs incurred of  $249,280, actual direct labor hours of  41,000, and actual machine hours of 11,000.We can calculate the to apply .

The estimated rate based on labour hour=240000/40000=6

The  actual rate based on labour hour=249280/41000=6.08

The rate based on machine hour=240000/10000=24

The rate based on machine hour=249280/11000=22.66

4 0
3 years ago
Emco Company uses direct labor cost as a basis for computing its predetermined overhead rate. In computing the predetermined ove
Andru [333]

Answer:

B. overstate the predetermined overhead rate.

Explanation:

As we know

The Predetermined overhead rate would be equal to

Predetermined overhead rate = (Total estimated manufacturing overhead) ÷ (estimated direct labor-hours or machine hours)

In the given question, the direct labor cost is used for computing the predetermined overhead rate which is already wrong.

To find out the predetermined overhead rate, we always use the indirect cost instead of direct cost

This error could overstate the predetermined overhead rate as it would increase the indirect labor due to which overhead is also increased. So, automatically the rate would also be increased.

8 0
2 years ago
American Hat has $1,000 face value bonds outstanding with a market price of $1,150. The bonds pay interest semiannually, mature
Aneli [31]

Answer:

Current Yield of bond is 3.53%

Explanation:

Current yield is the ratio of coupon payment of a bond to its current market price.

Formula for Current yield is as follow

Current Yield = Annual Coupon payment / Current market price

First we need to calculate the coupon payment by using following formula

YTM = [ C + ( F - P ) / n ] / [ ( F + P ) / 2 ]

5.8%/2 = [ C + ( $1,000 - $1,150 ) / 16 ] / [ ( $1,000 + $1,150 ) / 2 ]

2.9% = [ C + ( $1,000 - $1,150 ) / 16 ] / [ ( $1,000 + $1,150 ) / 2 ]

2.9% = [ C - $9.375 ] / $1,075

1,075 x 2.9% = C - $9.375

31.175 = C - 9.375

C = 31.175 + 9.375 = $40.55 annually

Current Yield = Annual Coupon payment / Current market price

Current Yield = $40.55 / $1,150 = 0.0353 = 3.53%

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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