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telo118 [61]
3 years ago
8

I need help with number 50

Mathematics
1 answer:
Margaret [11]3 years ago
6 0

 volume = l x w x h

20.5 x 6 x 14 = 210 cubic inches

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Tina buys a briefcase online for 62.95. If shipping and handling are an additional 20% of the price, how much shipping and handl
Alexxandr [17]

Answer:

Tina will pay $12.95 for shipping and handling.

Step-by-step explanation:

Because you literally just have to multiply $62.95 by .2 and you have your answer.

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4th

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You have four $10 bills and eighteen $5 bills in your piggy bank. How much money do you have?
kap26 [50]
$ 130. I got this by multiplying ten by four and 18 by 5 and adding then together. Hope this helps!
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Evaluate the expression when b=4/5 and c=-3/8<br><br> 2c-b
timurjin [86]

Answer:

-1/20

Step-by-step explanation:

2(3/8) - 4/5

6/8 - 4/5

30/40 - 32/40

-2/40

-1/20

6 0
3 years ago
A manufacturer of processing chips knows that 2\%2%2, percent of its chips are defective in some way. Suppose an inspector rando
kipiarov [429]

The data in the question seems a bit erroneous. I am writing the correct question below:

A manufacturer of processing chips knows that 2%, percent of its chips are defective in some way. Suppose an inspector randomly selects 4 chips for an inspection. Assuming the chips are independent, what is the probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective? Lets break this problem up into smaller pieces to understand the strategy behind solving it.

Answer:

The probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective is 0.0776.

Step-by-step explanation:

The question states that the probability of defective chips is 2% i.e. 0.02. Let p denote the probability of selecting a defective chip so, p = 0.02

An inspector selects 4 chips, which means n=4 and we need to compute the probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective. Let X be the number of defective chips selected. We need to compute P(X≥1) which means either 1, 2, 3 or 4 chips can be defective.

We will use the binomial distribution formula to solve this problem. The formula is:

<u>P(X=x) = ⁿCₓ pˣ qⁿ⁻ˣ</u>

where n = total no. of trials

          p = probability of success

          x = no. of successful trials

          q = probability of failure = 1-p

we have n=4, p=0.02 and q=1-0.02=0.98.

We need to compute P(X≥1) which is equal to:

P(X≥1) = P(X=1) + P(X=2) + P(X=3) + P(X=4)

A shorter method to do this is to use the total probability theorem:

P(X≥1) = 1 - P(X<1)

          = 1 - P(X=0)

          = 1 - ⁴C₀ (0.02)⁰(0.98)⁴⁻⁰

          = 1 - (0.98)⁴

          = 1 - 0.9224

P(X≥1) = 0.0776

4 0
4 years ago
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