Answer:
B. The hedge is asymmetric.
Explanation:
Hedging refers to a technique or a mechanism whereby firms and individuals aim for risk reduction, arising out of uncertain and volatile business situations, which may result into a heavy loss.
For example, an exporter entering into a forward contract to eliminate or reduce the risk of arising out of a future situation wherein, future receipts denominated in a foreign currency, receivable at a future date, may be less than same receipts receivable at current spot exchange rate as on today.
Currency hedge ratio depicts the proportion of total exposure which is covered by hedge w.r.t the total exposure itself.
Asymmetrical hedge refers to covering an exposure by an opposite position wherein the chances of earning profits are higher than the losses current position can lead to. Such an hedge would be similar to covering a call option with a put option. Asymmetrical refers to being of dissimilar or non equal size. Here, it refers to the dissimilarity between prospective profits and losses.
Under a perfect hedge, the loss position in a scenario is completely covered i.e 100% by a prospective gain in other situation, with there being negative correlation between the two scenarios such as if scenario 1 yields a profit, scenario 2 would yield a loss and vice versa.
Answer:
The correct answer is B. non-exempt security under the Securities Act of 1933 because the purchaser bears the investment risk
Explanation:
With a variable annuity, the annuity funds are invested in securities such as bond funds or equity funds. In these cases, the performance of the funds will define the performance of the annuity money and how much the annuity owner will receive from it. In this case, in the variable annuities there is a certain investment risk that everyone must determine when investing their money. In summary, the amount of risk that everyone is in a position to adopt will determine the amount of acceptable risk and therefore what type of funds will be selected for the investment.
It is possible to consider using a variable annuity for those who:
- They feel comfortable with stock market fluctuations and are willing to accept them in exchange for a greater return to inflation for a longer period of time.
- They are young people who seek to plan for retirement by taking advantage of the long-term stock market.
Answer:
D. $605,500
Explanation:
The computation of the expected balance in retained earnings on the 2018 is shown below:
The ending balance of retained earning = Beginning balance of retained earnings + net income - dividend paid
= $533,500 + $112,000 - $40,000
= $605,500
We simply applied the above formula so that the ending balance could arrive by considering all the items given in the question
Answer:
in case if anything happens
Answer:
If you are single, head of household or married filing separately, your contribution limit of $5,500 begins to phase out when your modified AGI reaches $61,000 and is zero beginning at $71,000. If you are married, filing jointly, or a qualified widow or widower, your contribution limit of $5,500 begins to phase out when your modified AGI reaches $98000 and is zero beginning at $118,000. So since they dont have an income limitation and are not covered by another pension plan, they both should be able to contribute $5,500 for a combined result of $11,000 to a Roth IRA
