Answer:
$856,376.30
Explanation:
What is the terminal, or horizon, value of operations?
2 years, FCF 1 = 80,000, FCFC 2 = 100,000, Growth rate= 5%, WACC = 16%
==> 100,000*(1+0.05)/(0.16-0.05)
==> 100,000*(1.05/0.11)
==> 100,000*(9.545454(
==> 954,545
Calculating the value of Kendra's operations.
Years Cash-flows PVF at 16% Present value
1 800,000 0.86206 68964.80
2 105,000 0.74316 78031.80
2 954,545 0.74316 <u>709379.70</u>
Total value <u>856,376.30</u>
Answer: Knowledge
Explanation: IDRC engages in expertise, creativity, and strategies to increase the quality of life in developing countries as a segment of Canada's international affairs and development activities. IDRC aims to address realistic development issues with the brilliant minds in Canada and across the globe.
In addition to promoting global stability and development, partnering with local academic institutions and financing agencies effectively decreases reliance on assistance while establishing political leadership.
Thus, from the above we can conclude that the primary focus in the program is on knowledge.
Answer:
Check the following explanation
Explanation:
Features that facilitiate making investment in mutual funds are as follows:
Any interest, dividends and capital gains can be automatically reinvested.
As your objective change, you can easily swap shares of another mutual funds withing a mutual fund family.
A mutual fund can be inherited by a designated beneficiary without the need to be checked.
Answer - the best mutual funds to invest are usually
No load funds.
In no load funds the investor need not pay any amount in the form of commission or other charges while purchasing or selling the investments.
Answer- If we invest $2000 in a front end load with 8% interest rate then we will earn $1840 as $160( $2000 x 8%) will get deducted from the purchase amount and eventually reducing the investment size.
Answer- we should review and rebalance your mutual funds annually as if we do it too frequently it kight involve some costs and thus would turn out to be less profitable.
Answer- It shifts assets from moderate to more risky as the retirement age approaches because it will help in increasing the income of the investor when he retires as at retirement he or she might start withdrawing his or her money.
Answer:
The Cost of good sold will decrease by 10,000
The other accounts balance will be the same.
<em>Missing Information:</em>
Ending balances in the relevant accounts were:
Work-in-Process 40,000
Finished Goods 80,000
Cost of Goods Sold 680,000
Explanation:
The company applied overhead for the amount of 435,000
This was charged into finished good which latter become cost of goods sold.
Then, as the actual overhead was 425,000 we have to adjust for the over-applied overehad. We applied more than it cost so we have to reduce it.
435,000 - 425,000 = 10,000
<u>We will decrease our COGS against the factory overhead account.</u>
COGS 10,000 debit
factory overhead 10,000 credit
Tuttle enterprises are considering a project that has the following cash flow and the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) data. The projected net present value is 074.36.
A project's net present value is the sum of the destiny values of the net coin flows compounded at the desired fee of going back minus the net funding. if safety gives a series of coin flows with an NPV of $50,000 and an investor will pay exactly $50,000 for it, then the investor's NPV is $0. It method they'll earn something the cut price charge is on the security.
Net present value or NPV is the sum of the prevailing value of coins inflows and outflows. In other phrases, it's far the distinction between the present values of cash inflows and the prevailing value of cash outflows over a while.net gift cost shows how a lot of money an assignment or investment will advantage or lose in terms of the present-day budget. future coins drift would not carefully mirror the current cash drift of an undertaking because of the impact of factors along with inflation and lost compound hobby so NPV adjusts for this reason.
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