Answer:
184.3448276
Step-by-step explanation:
5346/29
184.3448276
Answer:
My assumption of the probability would be..
Step-by-step explanation:
1/2
1/3 or less
1/5 or more
1/8
Because if your looking for probability, Its asking for the chance that it will be able to roll in a certain number so you have a 1/2 of it landing on one or the other side if it's a 2 sided coin or a 1/3 if you have a 3 sided triangle shaped dice.
Answer:
No solutions
Step-by-step explanation:
|-2x-10| + 4 = 2
Subtract 4 from each side
|-2x-10| + 4-4 = 2-4
|-2x-10| = -2
The absolute value is negative so there are no solutions.
Absolute values are always positive, so they cannot be negative.
The distribution shape that tells us for which it is best to use the mean is the skewed.
<h3>What is the mean?</h3>
This is the term that is used to refer to the average score that exists in a data set.
In the question, these are the reasons why the other options are not correct
When we say Bimodal we are talking about the 2 modes that are in a symmetric distribution. This has nothing to do with the mean
The bell shape has to do with how the normal distribution is when it is drawn. It would create a bell shape hence the mean is not useful.
symmetric has to do with the fact that there are mirror images when the vertical line is drawn in the distribution.
Uniformed shapes tells us that the classes are made up of the same frequency all through.
The skewed shape is what tells us if the median is more or if it is less.
Hence we have the answer that the distribution shapes for which it is most often appropriate to use the mean is the skewed.
Read more on the mean here
brainly.com/question/17847237
#SPJ1
Answer:
CBA = DEF
Step-by-step explanation:
DEF is the answer because CBA is the exact same triangle as the other one, it just upsidedown.
