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Fantom [35]
3 years ago
14

SCIENCE NOT MATHEMATICS SORRY!!

Mathematics
1 answer:
Lynna [10]3 years ago
7 0

Unfortunately sucrose isn't classified as any of the above because it is not alive. Sucrose can however be classified as a disaccharide because it contains two monosaccharides (glucose and fructose). If you want to be more broad you can classify it as a carbohydrate.

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The weight of a person on or above the surface of the earth varies inversely as the square of the distance the person is from th
AleksandrR [38]
If you do this with a complex set of fractions and let
K = G Me m_space be the same in both parts, there should be some cancellation.

W_earth = 180 lbs

W_earth = K /3900 miles^2
W_space =K  /(3900 + 850)^2

180 / W_space = k/3900^2
x = k / (4750)^2

\frac{180}{Wspace} =  \frac{ \frac{k}{3900^{2} } }{ \frac{k}{4750^{2}} /[tex]\\Now you need to invert and multiply the bottom fraction on the left.\\[tex] \frac{180}{x} {=} \frac{k}{3900^{2}} {*} \frac{4750^{2}}{k} 

The ks cancel out.

You are left with 180/x = 4750^2 / 3900^2 Now cross multiply
180 * 3900^2 = 4750^2  = x
180 * 3900^2 / 4750^2 = x 
180 * 0.67413 = x
x = 121 pounds. Weight is a force, but because all the units on one side are equivalent to the units on the other, the conversions become part of k. Normally you would have to do the conversions, but not in this particular case.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The scale of this map is 1 inch = 50 miles. The ruler measures the distance between Gary, Indiana, and Traverse City, Michigan,
levacccp [35]

Answer:

<em>150 miles</em>

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the scale on the map using the conversion factor

1 inch = 50 miles

We are to find the equivalent miles between the cities in miles if the distace is 3inches

3inches = x

Divide both expressions

1/3 = 50/x

Cross multiply

x = 3 * 50

x = 150

<em>Hence the actual distance between these two cities in miles is 150 miles </em>

6 0
2 years ago
A student randomly draws a card from a standard deck and checks to see if it is his favorite suit he then returned to card to th
tensa zangetsu [6.8K]

Answer:

The binomial probability formula can not be used for this experiment because it does not state the number of times he expects to draw his favorite suit.  

Step-by-step explanation:

The binomial probability formula is expressed as follows:

P (k success in n trials) = \left \{ {{n \atop k} \right. p^{k}q^{n-k}

n = number of trials, k = number of successes, n-k = number of failures, p = probability of success in one trial and q = 1 - p = probability of failure in one trial.  

In the given problem, all of the variables are known except for 'k', the amount of times that the student predicts he will draw his favorite suit.  

8 0
3 years ago
Math help please will give brainliest
natulia [17]
The answer is C. go with it.
3 0
3 years ago
Find the value of Y! please help
Maurinko [17]

Answer:

y = 5.6

Step-by-step explanation:

Use Sine

Sine = \frac{opposite}{hypothenuse}

Sine 45 = \frac{y}{18}

Sine of 18 is 0.309

0.309 = \frac{y}{18}

Multiply 18 on both sides

0.309 x 18 = \frac{y}{18} x 18

5.562 = y

Round to the nearest tenth:

5.562 = 5.6

3 0
3 years ago
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