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Gelneren [198K]
2 years ago
7

What effect does blocking by gender have on the standard deviation of recumbent length for each​ gender?

Mathematics
1 answer:
jek_recluse [69]2 years ago
3 0
The standard deviation is lower for each group than it is for the groups combined.
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At a football game, 12 people are wearing red jerseys and 15 people are wearing white jerseys. Write the ratio of red to white j
Anastasy [175]

Answer:

12:15 (simplified: 4:5)

12/15 (simplified: 4/5)

12 to 15 (simplified: 4 to 5)

Hope this helped!

6 0
2 years ago
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I'll give brainliest to whoever answers the question correctly!!!!
3241004551 [841]

Answer:

stetment one and reason teo

6 0
3 years ago
Use a graphing utility to graph the function and the damping factor of the function in the same viewing window.
Bas_tet [7]

Answer:

The function touches the damping factor

at x=\frac{(4n-3)\pi}{2} and x=\frac{(4n-1)\pi}{2}

The x-intercept of f(x) is

at x=n\pi

Step-by-step explanation:

Given function is f(x)=e^{-3x} sin(x) and damping factor as y=e^{-3x} and y=(-1)e^{-3x}

To find when function touches the damping factor:

For f(x)=e^{-3x} sin(x) and y=e^{-3x}

Equating the both the equation,

e^{-3x} sin(x)=e^{-3x}

sin(x)=1

x=\frac{(4n-3)\pi}{2}

For f(x)=e^{-3x} sin(x) and y=(-1)e^{-3x}

Equating the both the equation,

e^{-3x} sin(x)=(-1)e^{-3x}

sin(x)=(-1)

x=\frac{(4n-1)\pi}{2}

Therefore, The function touches the damping factor x=\frac{(4n-3)\pi}{2} and x=\frac{(4n-1)\pi}{2}

To find x-intercept of f(x):

For x-intercept, y=0

f(x)=e^{-3x} sin(x)

y=e^{-3x} sin(x)

e^{-3x} sin(x)=0

Hence, e^{-3x} is always greater than zero.

Therefore,sin(x)=0

x=n\pi

Thus,

The x-intercept of f(x) is at x=n\pi

7 0
3 years ago
Delray is starting a small computer business he apply to his bank for a loan of $12000. If the interest rate is 11% find the int
DENIUS [597]

I believe the answer would be $13,320.

Hope this helps ;}

5 0
3 years ago
A pair of parallel lines is cut by a transversal, as shown (see figure):
Anestetic [448]
The answer
let p' be the corresponding angle of the angle p (that is because of the prallelism and the transversal, look the image)
but p' and p are correspondant angles implies p'=p,
looking at the figure, p' and q are opposite angles
so q=p' and p'=p implies   q=p
the answer is
<span>p = q</span>

 


4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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