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Kisachek [45]
4 years ago
15

Which of the following is NOT a relevant cash flow and thus should not be reflected in the analysis of a capital budgeting proje

ct?
A. Changes in net working capital.B. Shipping and installation costs.
C. Cannibalization effects.
D. Opportunity costs.
E. Sunk costs that have been expensed for tax purposes.
Business
1 answer:
IgorLugansk [536]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

E. Sunk Costs that have been expensed for tax purposes

Explanation:

A relevant casf flow is a future cashflow that arises as direct consequence of a decison. A cost or revenue is cosidered to be relevant cash flow to a decision if it satisfies all of the following three (3) conditions:

  1. Future: A decision is a choice step of action to be taken in the future. Therefore no cost or revenue should be recognised until the action  is taken. Costs that have been incurred in the past prior to the decision should not be considered and are therefore not relevant. They are called sunk cost. Sunk costs are not relevant costs.
  2. Cash-based: items of expenditures  that do not result in the movement of cash should not be considered. e,g depreciation, amortization, provisions, e.t.c
  3. Must arise as a direct consequence of a decision. Also, only costs and benefits associated to decision should be included and consider as relevant. i.e incremental costs and benefits

Opportunity cost: the is the value of the next best benefit sacrificed in favour of a decision. Where taking a decision would lead to a loss of benefits The lost  benefits are therefore costs to be charged to the decision.

Cannibalization Effects. This occurs where the introduction of a new product by a firm causes a loss of sales and profits from the the existing product line. The loss of sales is an opportunity cost to be charged to the new product.

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The amount of money remaining after deductions are taken out best describes which term?
telo118 [61]
The answer to this question is the term net income. A net income is the remaining money after deductions or expenses have been taken from the gross income. Net income is also known as net profit. Net income also states and calculates the total revenue that exceeds after all operational expenses and taxes been deducted.
4 0
3 years ago
Prist Co. had not provided a warranty on its products, but competitive pressures forced management to add this feature at the be
Naddika [18.5K]

Answer:

Event 1:

Debit Warranty expense for $8.416.

Credit Warranty liability $8,416.

Event 2:

Debit Warranty liability for $8,416.

Debit Warranty expenses for $11,484.

Credit Cash for $19,900.

Explanation:

Estimated warranty liability = $4,208,000 * 0.2% = $8,416.

Excess of actual and over extimated warranty liability = $19,900 - $8,416 = $11,484

The journal entries will look as follows:

<u>Details                                         Dr ($)                  Cr ($) </u>

Warranty expense                      8.416

Warranty liability                                                   8,416

<em><u>(To record the estimated warranty liability).                      </u></em>

Warranty liability                         8,416

Warranty expenses                   11,484

Cash                                                                   19,900

<em><u>(To record actual warranty cost).                                        </u></em>

8 0
3 years ago
Which budgetary category changed the most between your old budget and your new budget? Why?
Sunny_sXe [5.5K]

Answer:

The net savings changed the most, and this is because of the extra money coming in via total income. An extra $290.00 was added to the category.

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
How long will it take for a $4000 investment to grow to $6000 at an annual rate of 15%, compounded monthly? Assume that no withd
Inessa05 [86]

Answer:

It will take 2.72 years and 32.64 months.

Explanation:

Future value is the sum of principal amount and compounded interest amount invested on a specific rate for a specific period of time.

Use following formula to calculate the time period.

FV = PV x ( 1+ r )^n

FV = Future value = $6,000

PV = Present Value =  $4,000

r = rate of interest = 15% yearly = 15% / 12 = 1.25%

n = time period = ?

$6,000 = $4,000 x ( 1 + 1.25% )^n

$6,000 = $4,000 x ( 1.0125 )^n

$6,000 / $4,000 = ( 1.0125 )^n

1.5 = ( 1.0125 )^n

Log 1.5 = n log 1.0125

n = Log 1.5 / log 1.0125

n = 32.64 months

n = 2.72 years

6 0
3 years ago
When a country is not able to produce a good more efficiently than other nations, but produces the good more efficiently than it
nikitadnepr [17]

Answer:

The answer is comparative advantage.

Explanation:

Comparative advantage is when a country is able to produce goods and services at a lower opportunity cost than its trading partners. That means a labour can produce more goods per hour than a labour in its trading partner's country.

A country with a comparative advantage will be able to charge lower price for what she is specialising on.

3 0
3 years ago
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