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MrRa [10]
3 years ago
5

Lean production should result in reduced inventories. If lean production is successfully implemented, the difference in net oper

ating income computed under the absorption and variable costing methods should be reduced.
Business
1 answer:
harina [27]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

True

Explanation:

If lean production totally eliminates inventories, the net operating income computed under the absorption and variable costing methods should be equal.  If lean production only reduces inventories, then the difference in net operating income under the two methods will be reduced.

Lean production is a system of production that tries to eliminate bottlenecks in the flow of goods by employing tools like just in time (JIT), Kaizen, and the 5S of Sort, Set in Order, Shine, Standardize, and Sustain, among others.  It attempts to cut costs, reduce unnecessary inventory, shorten production cycle, speed response time, grant employees autonomy,  and reduce waste of resources while ensuring high quality and customer satisfaction.

Lean production employs some principles in order to achieve efficiency.  They are: 1) definition of value, 2) mapping the value stream, 3) creating efficient flow, 4) using a pull system, and 5) pursuing perfection in all aspect of production activities.  The Lean approach can be applied to services and other aspect of business, like system, structure, and organization.

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In the AD partnership, Allen's capital is $140,000 and Daniel's is $40,000 and they share income in a 3:1 ratio, respectively. T
Virty [35]

Answer: Option (B) is correct.

Explanation:

Capital contribution by David = $40,000

Interest of David in partnership = \frac{1}{5}

Total capital of the partnership after the admission of new partner:

= \frac{40,000}{\frac{1}{5} }

= $200,000

Total capital of partnership before decreasing of obsolete inventory:

= $140,000 + $40,000 + $40,000

= $220,000

Therefore, value of decrease in inventory:

= Total capital before decrease - Total capital after decrease

= $220,000 - $200,000

= $20,000

The reduction in value of inventory will be distributed in old partners in ratio of 3:1

Hence,

Capital balance of Allen after admission of David:

= 140,000 - 20,000\times\frac{3}{4}

= $125,000

Capital balance of Daniel after admission of David:

= 40,000 - 20,000\times\frac{1}{4}

= $35,000

5 0
3 years ago
Sherman paid a cash dividend of $3.25 per share. At year-end, Sherman stock was selling for $37.50 per share.Prepare Blue's jour
Ulleksa [173]

<u>Complete question:</u>

Fairbanks Corporation purchased 400 shares of Sherman Inc. common stock as an investment in trading securities for $13,200. During the year, Sherman paid a cash dividend of $3.25 per share. At year-end, Sherman stock was selling for $34.50 per share. Prepare Fairbanks's journal entries to record (a) the purchase of the investment, (b) the dividends received, and (c) the fair value adjustment

<u>Solution:</u>

Given,

Total shares = 400

Trading securities = $13,200

Cash dividend = $3.25 per share

Sales price of stock = $34.50 per share

Note: The image attached shows the journal entries of all the transactions.

Dividend revenue is 400\times \$3.25=\$1300

Fair value adjustment is [(400\times \$34.50)-\$13,200]

The above values are entered in the journal transaction.

6 0
3 years ago
Hiring managers and college admissions officers are some of the people who use social media and other Internet resources to rese
OlgaM077 [116]
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5 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
McDougan Associates, a U.S. based investment partnership, borrows EUR 80,000,000 at a time when the exchange rate is USD1.3460/E
ivolga24 [154]

Answer:

The effective cost of this loan for McDougan Associates: 3.06%.

Explanation:

* The exchange rate over the 3-year of borrowing is:

Y1: USD/EUR: 1.3460 x ( 1 -3%) = 1.3056

Y2: USD/EUR: 1.3460 x ( 1 -3%)^2 = 1.2665

Y3: USD/EUR: 1.3460 x ( 1 -3%)^3 = 1.2285

* Interest payment in USD at each year are and principal payment at the end of 3 years:

Y1: 80,000,000 x 6.250% x 1.3056 = $6,528,000

Y2: 80,000,000 x 6.250% x 1.2665 = $6,332,500

Y3: (80,000,000 x 6.250%+80,000,000) x 1.2285 = $104,422,500.

* Principal borrowing at the beginning in term of USD = 80,000,000 x 1.3460 = $107,680,000.

=> Effective cost of this loan ( denoted as x) is equal to the discount rate of future repayment ( in term of USD) that equalize the net present value of future repayment to its principal borrowing:

6,528,000/ (1+x) + 6,332,500/(1+x)^2 + 104,422,500/(1+x)^3 = 107,680,000 <=> x = 3.06%

Thus, Effective cost of this loan is 3.06%.

7 0
3 years ago
Please check my answer. I picked A.
yawa3891 [41]
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3 years ago
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