2. How many milliliters are in 1 pint?A. 120B. 240C. 480D. 960
1 answer:
You might be interested in
Use pythagorean theorem: 6^2+b^2=10^2; 36+b^2+=100; b^2=64; 
; b=8cm=EF
Divide by -8 (change inequality sign direction)
Response:
<h2>Answer:</h2>
The probability is:
It is given that:
An urn contains balls numbered 1 through 20.
A ball is chosen, returned to the urn, and a second ball is chosen.
This means that this is a case of a replacement.
Hence, one of the event is independent of the other.
Now we know that the probability to get a particular number of ball is:
( Since, there are total 20 balls and a ball of one particular number is just unique )
i.e.
Hence, the probability that the first and second balls will be a 8 is: