We are given chance of winning a game is 1/50.
In decimal form 1/50 could be written as 0.02.
So, for each game, the chance of winning is 0.02.
Therefore, chance of loss would be = 1 -(0.02) = 0.98.
Chance of loss of 50 independent games = 0.98*0.98*0.98*0.98...... upto 50 times, that is (0.98)^50.
The chance of winning at least once = 1 - (0.98)^50.
We got (0.98)^50 = 0.36417
Therefore, 1 - (0.98)^50 = 1 - 0.36417.
We get 0.63583.
Therefore, correct option is c. 0.6358.
Answer:
It is a relationship of direct proportionality. When on a graph, traces a stright line. It will always produce a corresponding change.
e.x. y=2 and y=x It all corresponds into a stright line.
Hope it helps!
Answer:
p=16
Step-by-step explanation:
I would just round up to 200 and then subtract twelve or just subtract 200 what ever way u prefer.
Answer:
9.694 years
Step-by-step explanation:
Let the investment is $P.
So, we are asked to determine the time it will grow to triple with the compound interest rate of 12%.
Let the time is y years.
So, from the formula of compound interest we can write
⇒ 
⇒ 
Now, taking log both sides we get,
y log 1.12 = log 3 {Since, 
}
⇒ 0.04922y = 0.477712
⇒ y = 9.694 years (Answer)
