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VLD [36.1K]
3 years ago
10

You have successfully started and operated a company for the past 10 years. You have decided that it is time to sell your compan

y and spend time on the beaches of Hawaii. A potential buyer is interested in your company, but he does not have the necessary capital to pay you a lump sum. Instead, he has offered $800,000 today and annuity payments for the balance. The first payment will be for $250,000 in three months. The payments will increase at 1.6 percent per quarter and a total of 20 quarterly payments will be made. If you require an EAR of 11 percent, how much are you being offered for your company? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answer to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.)
Business
1 answer:
VikaD [51]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

$5,225,417

Explanation:

first payment 800000

1 quarter         250000

2 quarters 254000

3 quarters 258064

4 quarters 262193

5 quarters 266388

6 quarters 270650

7 quarters 274981

8 quarters 279380

9 quarters 283851

10 quarters 288392

11 quarters 293006

12 quarters 297694

13 quarters 302458

14 quarters 307297

15 quarters 312214

16 quarters 317209

17 quarters 322284

18 quarters 327441

19 quarters 332680

20 quarters 338003

11% = (1 + i/4)⁴

i = 0.106

quarterly interest = 2.65%

Now we need to determine the present value of this  annuity and our discount rate is 2.65%. I will use an excel spreadsheet to determine the present value of the 20 quarterly payments and then add the initial payment.

$4,425,417 + $800,000 = $5,225,417

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Suppose investors can earn a return of 2% per 6 months on a Treasury note with 6 months remaining until maturity. The face value
Katena32 [7]

Answer:

Price of treasury bill = $9,803.92

Explanation:

<em>The price of the treasury note would be the present value of the future receivable on maturity discounted at the rate of return of 2% per six-month.</em>

The formula is FV = PV × (1+r)^(n)

PV = Present Value- ?

FV - Future Value, - 10,000

n- number of years- 1/2

r- interest rate - 2%

PV = 10,000 × (1.02)^(-1)

PV = 9,803.92

Price of treasury bill = $9,803.92

5 0
3 years ago
Hache Corporation uses the weighted-average method in its process costing system. Data concerning the first processing departmen
Greeley [361]

Answer:

The cost of ending work in process inventory in the first processing department according to the company's cost system is closest to: d) $21,797

Explanation:

Calculation of Equivalent Units of Production

<u>Materials </u>

Units transferred to the next department (5,800 × 100%) = 5,800

Units in ending Work In process (1,850 × 50%)                  =    925

Total Equivalent Units of Production for Materials             = 6,725

<u>Conversion</u>

Units transferred to the next department (5,800 × 100%)    = 5,800

Units in ending Work In process (1,850 × 20%)                     =    370

Total Equivalent Units of Production for Conversion Costs =  6,170

Calculation of Cost per Equivalent units of Production

Materials

Cost per equivalent unit = Total Material Cost ÷ Total Equivalent Units of Production for Materials

                                        = ($ 8,700 + $ 91,000) ÷ 6,725

                                        = $14.825

Cost per equivalent unit = Total Material Cost ÷ Total Equivalent Units of Production for Materials

                                        = ($ 8,500 + $ 126,300) ÷ 6,170

                                        = $21.848

Calculation of cost of ending work in process inventory

Materials ( 925 ×  $14.825)             =  $13,713.12

Conversion Cost ( 370 × $21.848)  =  $8,083.76

Total                                                 =  $21,796.88

Thus,

The cost of ending work in process inventory in the first processing department according to the company's cost system is closest to: d) $21,797.

5 0
3 years ago
If the standard deviation of returns from an investment is zero, then: the risk associated with the investment is more than that
MariettaO [177]

Answer:

the expected return from the investment is higher than that of those investments whose standard deviation is greater than zero.

Explanation:

As for the coefficient of variation which clearly defines the difference in values from the mean value in the data set.

It clearly defines as standard deviation/mean.

Where standard deviation is 0 the coefficient will also be 0 which shall represent the risk associated with it.

The least the coefficient of variation the least the risk with maximum return.

Thus, the correct statement will be concluding that the expected return from this investment will be higher than the returns from the project in which standard deviation is more than 0.

3 0
2 years ago
____________the market school aruges that forward exchange rates do the best possible job for forecasting future spot exchange r
rjkz [21]

Answer:

Efficient market school.

Explanation:

Efficient market school is the market school which argues that forward exchange rates do the best possible job for forecasting future spot exchange rates, so investing in exchange rate forecasting services would be a waste of time because it is impossible to have a consistent alpha generation on a risk adjusted excess returns basis as market prices are only affected by new informations.

The efficient market school also known as the efficient market hypothesis (EMH) is a hypothesis that states that asset (share) prices reflect all information and it is very much impossible to consistently beat the market.

Also, forward exchange rates are exchange rates controlling foreign exchange transactions at a specific future date or time.

<em>Hence, according to the efficient market school it would be a waste of time investing in exchange rate forecasting services because all the information about an asset or security is already factored into their prices and as a result of the randomness of the market. </em>

8 0
3 years ago
Sunland Company is unsure of whether to sell its product assembled or unassembled. The unit cost of the unassembled product is $
nikitadnepr [17]

Answer: Sell before assembly, the company will be better off by $1 per unit.

Explanation:

To solve the above question, we need to calculate the incremental profit or loss first. This will be:

= After assembling sales value - Unassembled unit sales value - Coat if further processing

= $87 - $62 - $26

= -$1

Since there is an incremental loss of $1, then the correct answer is "Sell before assembly, the company will be better off by $1 per unit".

7 0
3 years ago
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