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Kay [80]
3 years ago
13

HELPPPP NOW ASAP A dartboard has 20 equally divided wedges, and you are awarded the number of points in the section your dart la

nds in. If you are equally likely to land in any wedge, what is the probability you will score 21 points?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Varvara68 [4.7K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

0.

Step-by-step explanation:

It is given that a dartboard has 20 equally divided wedges, and we are awarded the number of points in the section your dart lands in.  

It means you can score from 1 to 20 in one trial.

We need to find the probability we will score 21 points.

Number of wedges with mark 21 = 0

Total number of wedges = 20

\text{Probability}=\dfrac{\text{Number of wedges with mark 21}}{\text{Total number of wedges}}

\text{Probability}=\dfrac{0}{20}

\text{Probability}=0

Therefore, the required probability is 0. It means it is an impossible event.

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Step-by-step explanation:

1,750 feet divided by 250 feet equals 7, therefore 7 minutes to reach the ground.

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3 years ago
Emily bought 63 yards of fabric to make curtains.
olganol [36]

Answer:

<u>2268 inches of fabric</u>

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 36 inches in 1 yard. Therefore, we multiply 36 by 63 to get an answer of 2268.

<u>Therefore, Emily bought </u><u>2268</u><u> inches of fabric</u>

7 0
3 years ago
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A fire truck and an ambulance each drive along a straight road between two points. Using the points on a map that the city creat
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6 0
3 years ago
A rectangular swimming pool has a base of 200 square feet. The pool has a depth of 5 feet.
xz_007 [3.2K]

Answer:

  1,000 ft³

Step-by-step explanation:

The volume is given by ...

  V = Bh

where B is the area of the base, and h is the height. For the given dimensions, the volume is ...

  V = (200 ft²)(5 ft) = 1000 ft³

3 0
3 years ago
The weekly amount spent by a small company for in-state travel has approximately a normal distribution with mean $1450 and stand
Llana [10]

Answer:

0.0903

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that :

The mean = 1450

The standard deviation = 220

sample mean = 1560

P(X > 1560) = P( Z > \dfrac{x - \mu}{\sigma})

P(X > 1560) = P(Z > \dfrac{1560 - 1450}{220})

P(X > 1560) = P(Z > \dfrac{110}{220})

P(X> 1560) = P(Z > 0.5)

P(X> 1560) = 1 - P(Z < 0.5)

From the z tables;

P(X> 1560) = 1 - 0.6915

P(X> 1560) = 0.3085

Let consider the given number of weeks = 52

Mean \mu_x = np = 52 × 0.3085 = 16.042

The standard deviation =  \sqrt {n \time p (1-p)}

The standard deviation = \sqrt {52 \times 0.3085 (1-0.3085)}

The standard deviation = 3.3306

Let Y be a random variable that proceeds in a binomial distribution, which denotes the number of weeks in a year that exceeds $1560.

Then;

Pr ( Y > 20) = P( z > 20)

Pr ( Y > 20) = P(Z > \dfrac{20.5 - 16.042}{3.3306})

Pr ( Y > 20) = P(Z >1 .338)

From z tables

P(Y > 20) \simeq 0.0903

7 0
3 years ago
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