Answer:
-15x + 39 = -3(5x - 13)
Step-by-step explanation:
a. -3(5x - 13) = -15x + 39
b. -3(5x + 13) = -15x - 39
c. 3(5x - 13) = 15x - 39
d. 3(5x + 13) = 15x + 39
Answer:
a) The probability that the airline will lose no bags next monday is 0.1108
b) The probability that the airline will lose 0,1, or 2 bags next Monday is 0.6227
c) I would recommend taking a Poisson model with mean 4.4 instead of a Poisson model with mean 2.2
Step-by-step explanation:
The probability mass function of X, for which we denote the amount of bags lost next monday is given by this formula
![P(X=k) = \frac{e^{-2.2} * {2.2}^k }{k!}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20P%28X%3Dk%29%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7Be%5E%7B-2.2%7D%20%2A%20%7B2.2%7D%5Ek%20%7D%7Bk%21%7D%20)
a)
![P(X=0) = \frac{e^{-2.2} * {2.2}^0 }{0!} = 0.1108](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%20P%28X%3D0%29%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7Be%5E%7B-2.2%7D%20%2A%20%7B2.2%7D%5E0%20%7D%7B0%21%7D%20%3D%200.1108%20)
The probability that the airline will lose no bags next monday is 0.1108.
b) Note that
. And
![P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2) = e^{-2.2} * (1 + 2.2 + 2.2^2/2) = 0.6227](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%3D0%29%2BP%28X%3D1%29%2BP%28X%3D2%29%20%3D%20e%5E%7B-2.2%7D%20%2A%20%281%20%2B%202.2%20%2B%202.2%5E2%2F2%29%20%3D%200.6227)
Therefore, the probability that the airline will lose 0,1, or 2 bags next Monday is 0.6227.
c) If the double of flights are taken, then you at least should expect to loose a similar proportion in bags, because you will have more chances for a bag to be lost. WIth this in mind, we can correctly think that the average amount of bags that will be lost each day will double. Thus, i would double the mean of the Poisson model, in other words, i would take a Poisson model with mean 4.4, instead of 2.2.
Find the slope first by doing (6+2)/(4-3)=8/1 or just 8. Next use a set of coordinates into the equation so 6=8(4)+b then solve so 6=32+b next subtract 32 from both sides which would equal -24=b. Then plug it all into the equation so y=8x-24
UGH I think I did this before but I totally forgot how to do it. Give me a minute to do some research and remember because I'm about 79% sure I know how to do this!
Answer:
C & D
Step-by-step explanation:
Both have an odd amount of numbers, meaning there is a perfect middle.