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kow [346]
3 years ago
11

When a cube with sides numbered one through six is roll one time what is the probability of rolling a four or greater?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Fofino [41]3 years ago
6 0
1/2 of a chance to roll a four or greater
Elanso [62]3 years ago
3 0
Since it's a six dice then it's out of x/6

How much is 4 to 6 ?

~3 (counting 4) 4.5.6...

So it's 3/6 = 1/2

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What value of k will make this relationship NOT a function?
devlian [24]

Answer:

the correct answer is b.

Step-by-step explanation:

it is b because if you plug in -7, two of the x-values will have -7 making the x-values the same and in order to be a function all x-values have to be different.

6 0
3 years ago
What is the midline of the function graphed below?<br><br> y = 1<br> y= 0.5<br> y = 0<br> y =2
8_murik_8 [283]

Answer:

J

Step-by-step explanation:

42/2=21 or one triangles.

Using the <u>Pythagorean Theorem A^2+B^2=C^2</u>

<u>441+?=625</u>

\sqrt{184} or about 13.6

7 0
2 years ago
Which similarity statements are true? Check all that apply. △JKL ~ △KML △JKM ~ △JKL △JKM ~ △KML △JMK ~ △JKL △JMK ~ △KML
Aliun [14]
The answer:

according to the image, the main theorem concerning right triangle similarity is as follow:
the altitude to the hypotenuse of a right triangle divides the triangle into two triangles that are similar to the original triangle and each other, 

in our case, KL is the altitude, and by applying theorem, we get three triangles that are similar:
therefore:
<span>△JKL ~ △JKM
</span><span>△JKM ~ △JKM
</span><span>△JMK ~ △KML</span>
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The circumference of a circle is 5pi m. What is the area, in square meters? Express
Alex777 [14]
The answer is in the image hope this helps

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Simplify sin^2y/sec^2 y−1 to a single trigonometric function
liubo4ka [24]

Answer:

\frac{ { \sin}^{2} y}{ { \sec}^{2}y - 1 }  =  { \cos }^{2} y

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that { \tan }^{2} y =  { \sec }^{2} y - 1

Also , { \tan}^{2} y =   \frac{ { \sin }^{2} y}{ { \cos }^{2}y }

So ,

\frac{ { \sin }^{2}y }{ { \sec }^{2}y - 1 }  =  \frac{ { \sin}^{2} y}{ { \tan }^{2} y}  =  \frac{ { \sin }^{2}y }{ \frac{ { \sin}^{2} y}{ { \cos}^{2}y } }  =  { \cos }^{2} y

6 0
3 years ago
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