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lutik1710 [3]
3 years ago
15

At the end of the year, a company has a $1,200 debit balance in Manufacturing Overhead. As a result, the company:a.makes an adju

sting journal entry by debiting Manufacturing Overhead for $1,200 and crediting Manufacturing Overhead for $1,200. b.makes no adjusting journal entry because the difference between actual overhead and the amount applied are a normal part of job order costing and will average out over the next year. c.makes an adjusting journal entry by debiting Manufacturing Overhead Expense for $1,200 and crediting Manufacturing Overhead for $1,200. d.makes an adjusting journal entry by debiting Cost of Goods Sold for $1,200 and crediting Manufacturing Overhead for $1,200.
Business
1 answer:
Nonamiya [84]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

d. makes an adjusting journal entry by debiting Cost of Goods Sold for $1,200 and crediting Manufacturing Overhead for $1,200.

Explanation:

The debit balance of $1,200 in the Manufacturing Overhead account represents under-applied overhead.  To ensure that the Cost of Goods Sold is accurate, the debit balance is debited to the Cost of Goods Sold while the corresponding credit goes to the Manufacturing Overhead account.

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Snyder Painting is transitioning to an ABC system. So far, the company has traced its costs back to several different activities
Andreyy89

Answer:

Snyder Painting

If Snyder wants to reduce its non-value-added activities to the greatest extent possible, it should concentrate its efforts on reducing the amount of time and money it spends on

B. paint storage.

Explanation:

a) Identified Activities of Snyder Painting:

A. customer consultation.

B. paint storage.

C. site preparation and cleanup.

D. onsite paint application.

b) Non-value added activities are activities that are currently necessary and consume resources but do not add value to the company's product or service.  For example, equipment set-up, parts inspection, recording job time, job scheduling, product storage, and customer billing. These activities should be reduced to the barest minimum in order to maximize value.

8 0
3 years ago
How does a monopoly's demand for labor shift if a second firm enters its output market and the result is a cournot duopoly equil
shusha [124]

Answer: The demand is shared with the new company that enters the market.

Explanation: The Cournot duopoly is an imperfect competition model, that is, the law of supply and demand is not freely used, in which two companies with equal costs compete with homogeneous goods in a static environment, that is, with the same characteristics.

For example: A leading brand of soda in the market, get a competitor that has the same characteristics. People will prefer one of the two brands and they will always lead the market, but they will have to divide the market.

8 0
3 years ago
Klingon Cruisers, Inc., purchased new cloaking machinery five years ago for $20 million. The machinery can be sold to the Romula
gladu [14]

Answer:

a. $16,426,000

b. $19,080,000

Explanation:

a. What is the book value of Klingon's assets today?

Book value of assets refer to the value of the total value of the assets of a company on its balance sheet after depreciation, impairment and amortization have been deducted.

This can be calculated for this question as follows:

Book value of Klingon's assets today = Book value of current assets + Book value of  fixed assets

Book value of fixed assets = $15,500,000

Book value of current assets = Current liabilities + Net working capital = $700,000 + $226,000 = $926,000

Therefore, we have:

Book value of Klingon's assets today =  $15,500,000 + $926,000 = $16,426,000

b. What is the market value?

Market value refer to the amount that can be realized from selling something such as the assets of a company.

This can be calculated for this question as follows:

Market value = Machinery sales amount + Current asset liquidated amount = $18,000,000 + $1,080,000 = $19,080,000

3 0
3 years ago
Category 2013 2014 Accounts payable 16,200 ???? Accounts receivable 48,600 44,500 Accruals 24,300 16,200 Cash 81,000 98,000 Comm
Anestetic [448]

Answer:

The answer is e. 40,500.

Explanation:

To find out the balance for account payable in 2014, we need to recall to the Accounting equation:

Asset = Liabilities + Owner's Equity

Applying in the question, we replace the balance of asset items, liability items and equity items in 2014 to find the answer:

Account Receivable + Cash + Inventories + Net Fixed Asset = Account Payable + Accruals + Common Stock + Long term debt + Notes payable + Retained earnings

=> 44,500 + 98,000 + 60,800 + 121,500 = Account Payable + 16,200 + 81,000 + 89,100 + 37,200 + 60,800 <=> Account Payable = $40,500.

So, the answer is e. 40,500.

5 0
3 years ago
Blan
Degger [83]

Answer:

D. capital

Explanation:

because its only capital and has nothing to do.. we just can spell it.. but not to provide all of the household provide

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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