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Ghella [55]
3 years ago
6

Question 3(Multiple Choice Worth 4 points) Simplify 32 ⋅ 35.

Mathematics
2 answers:
rjkz [21]3 years ago
7 0
It would still be 32/35
Romashka [77]3 years ago
7 0
32/35 hope this helps 

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Keitaro walks at a pace of 3 miles per hour and runs at a pace of 6 miles per hour. Each month, he wants to complete at least 36
Kamila [148]

A. 2x3=6 and 6x12=72 so 78 is greater than 36

6+72=79 which is less than 90

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3 years ago
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Which table shows a no change linear relationship?
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I need the picture. Or i can't see the pic
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3 years ago
: Emily’s family ordered a pizza for dinner. The radius of the pizza is 8 inches. How many square inches of pizza did Emily’s fa
denpristay [2]

Answer:

A = 201.06  square inches

Step-by-step explanation:

Radius of the pizza is 8 inches.

It is required to find the area of the pizza get by Emily's family.

Pizza is in the shape of circle. Area of a circular figure is given by :

A=\pi r^2\\\\A=\pi (8)^2\\\\A=201.06\ in^2

So, the Emily's family will get 201.06 square inches of pizza.

5 0
3 years ago
Aaron invested $740 in an account paying an interest rate of 5%
vlada-n [284]

The amount of money   Justin would have in his account than Aaron, to the nearest dollar is $0

What is the future value formula for continuous compounding cash flow?

The future value, which is used to determine the worth of this investment of $740 made now in 18 years is as shown below:

FV=PV*e^(rt)

FV=the worth of the investment in 18 years=unknown

PV=the amount invested today=$740

e=mathematical exponential value=2.7182818

r=rate of interest which compounded continuously=5%

t=time of investment in years=18

FV=$740*2.7182818^(5%*18)

FV=$740*2.7182818^(0.90)

FV=$740*2.459603087981220

FV=$1,820.11

Justin:

FV=PV*(1+r/m)^(n*m)

PV=$740

r=5%

m=number of times in a year that interest is compounded=365

m=number of years=18

FV=$740*(1+5%/365)^(18*365)

FV=$1,819.99

difference=$1,820.11-$1,819.99

difference=$0.12($0 to the nearest dollar)

Find out more about continuous compounding on:brainly.com/question/23136156

#SPJ1

8 0
1 year ago
Refer to the Trowbridge Manufacturing example in Problem 2-35. The quality control inspection proce- dure is to select 6 items,
Ivanshal [37]

Answer:

77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each item, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is defective, or it is not. The probability of an item being defective is independent of other items. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

The true proportion of defects is 0.15

This means that p = 0.15

Sample of 6:

This means that n = 6

What is the probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6?

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{6,0}.(0.15)^{0}.(0.85)^{6} = 0.3771

P(X = 1) = C_{6,1}.(0.15)^{1}.(0.85)^{5} = 0.3993

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.3771 + 0.3993 = 0.7764

77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.

5 0
3 years ago
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