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3 years ago

Consider the graph of quadrilateral ABCD.

Mathematics

2 answers:

svp [43]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

Parallelogram

Step-by-step explanation:

Give the most specific classification for quadrilateral ABCD: parallelogram, rhombus, a rectangle, or square.

Umnica [9.8K]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Square

Step-by-step explanation:

The quadrilateral has 4 congruent sides that form 4 right angles.

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PLEASE HELP ASAP 25 PTS

olya-2409 [2.1K]

Hello from MrBillDoesMath!

Answer:

Choice B ( (x+6)/5) )

Discussion:

y = f(x) = 5x - 6

To solve for the inverse of f, replace "y" by "x" and "x" by "y" in the original equation. That is, solve for "y" in

x = 5y -6 => add 6 to both sides

x + 6 = 5y => divide both sides by 5

y = (x+6)/5

"y" above is the inverse, which is Choice B

Thank you,

MrB

4 0

3 years ago

Simplify 3/4×(4)1/3÷(3)1/4

ankoles [38]

Answer:

The answer is 1

Step-by-step explanation:

3/4×13/3÷13/4
3/4×13/4×4/13
=1

4 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

What are the solutions of the quadratic equation (x + 3)2 = 49? x = –2 and x = –16 x = 2 and x = x = 4 and x = –10 x = 40 and x

steposvetlana [31]

Im gonna assume you are solving for x, the equation (x + 3)2 = 49 x is equal to 21.5 or 21 and 1/2. however the rest aren’t equations they’re just x = number and there isn’t much to do with that

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Explain why 2/3 x 12 can be written as 2 x 12 divided by 3.

Inga [223]

Answer and Step-by-step explanation:

$\frac{2}{3}$ × 12 can also be written as $\frac{2 * 12 }{3}$ because the 12 is multiplying the numerator of the fraction.

12 can also be written as $\frac{12}{1}$ .

When we solve, this is what is happening:

$\frac{2}{3}$ × $\frac{12}{1}$

The 12 will be multiplying the 2, while the 1 will be multiplying the 3. Because 3 times 1 is 3, we don't show the 1. So, that can leave us with 2 being multiplied by 12 in the numerator.

<em><u>#teamtrees #PAW (Plant And Water)</u></em>

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Tic-tac-toe: In the game of tic-tac-toe, if all moves are performed randomly the probability that the game will end in a draw is

Natasha2012 [34]

Answer:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X$

And if we find the individual probability we got:

$P(X=0)=(7C0)(0.127)^0 (1-0.127)^{7-0}=0.3865$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=7, p=0.127)$