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Mrac [35]
3 years ago
14

The weekly profit of a company is modeled by the function w = –g2 + 120g – 28. The weekly profit, w, is dependent on the number

of gizmos, g, sold. If the break-even point is when w = 0, how many gizmos must the company sell each week in order to break even?
Business
1 answer:
FromTheMoon [43]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

120 gizmos.

Explanation:

We have been given that the weekly profit of a company is modeled by the function w =-g^2+120g-28. The weekly profit, w, is dependent on the number of gizmos, g, sold. The break-even point is when  w=0.

To find the number of gizmos the company must sell each week in order to break even, we will substitute w=0 in profit function as:

0 =-g^2+120g-28

-g^2+120g-28=0

Now, we will use quadratic formula to solve for g.

g=\frac{-120\pm\sqrt{120^2-4(-1)(-28)}}{2(-1)}

g=\frac{-120\pm\sqrt{14400-112}}{-2}

g=\frac{-120\pm\sqrt{14288}}{-2}

g=\frac{-120\pm 119.53242237987}{-2}

g=\frac{-120-119.53242237987}{-2}\text{ or }g=\frac{-120+119.53242237987}{-2}

g=\frac{-239.53242237987}{-2}\text{ or }g=\frac{-0.46757762013}{-2}

g=119.76621118\text{ or }g=0.2337888

g\approx 120\text{ or }g\approx 0.23

We will take the larger value for the number of gizmos.

Therefore, the company must sell 120 gizmos each week in order to break even.

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Answer:

The first investment is more profitable than the general market interest rate.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

An investment will pay $202,000 at the end of next year for an investment of $182,000 at the start of the year. The market interest rate is 7.9% over the same period.

<u>To compare both options, we need to calculate the final value of investing the $182,000 in other investment that pays a 7.9% interest rate.</u>

We need to use the following formula:

FV= PV*(1+i)^n

FV= 182,000*(1.079)= $196,378

The first investment is more profitable than the general market interest rate.

7 0
3 years ago
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Answer:

A. There is a moderately good fit between the regression line and the individual data points on the scatterplot.

Explanation:

A -.5 correlation coefficient indicates a moderate negative correlation, which means that as the x variable increases in value, the y value decreases in value, but only in around half of the situations.

In a scatter plot, this will look like a small cloud of data points that fit more or less well around the regression line. The regression line slopes downward because the variables are inversely proportional (hence the negative coefficient).

3 0
3 years ago
BigFive Inc. has been known for its excellent customer service since its start more than 40 years ago. The company carefully sel
Angelina_Jolie [31]

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8 0
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Botosan Factory has budgeted factory overhead for the year at $717,474, and budgeted direct labor hours for the year are 364,200
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Answer:

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Explanation:

Predetermined overhead rate = Budgeted Overheads ÷ Budgeted Activity

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                                                    = $1.97 per direct labor hour

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                                     = $652,858

therefore,

The overhead allocated for May is $652,858.

6 0
3 years ago
Ace Leasing acquires equipment and leases it to customers under long-term sales-type leases. Ace earns interest under these arra
sladkih [1.3K]

Answer:

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PVIF Annuity due, 6%, 5 payments = 4.546

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3 0
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