Answer:
The first investment is more profitable than the general market interest rate.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
An investment will pay $202,000 at the end of next year for an investment of $182,000 at the start of the year. The market interest rate is 7.9% over the same period.
<u>To compare both options, we need to calculate the final value of investing the $182,000 in other investment that pays a 7.9% interest rate.</u>
We need to use the following formula:
FV= PV*(1+i)^n
FV= 182,000*(1.079)= $196,378
The first investment is more profitable than the general market interest rate.
Answer:
A. There is a moderately good fit between the regression line and the individual data points on the scatterplot.
Explanation:
A -.5 correlation coefficient indicates a moderate negative correlation, which means that as the x variable increases in value, the y value decreases in value, but only in around half of the situations.
In a scatter plot, this will look like a small cloud of data points that fit more or less well around the regression line. The regression line slopes downward because the variables are inversely proportional (hence the negative coefficient).
Answer: The correct answer is "E. BigFive's employees not only know how to do their work but also are enthusiastic and committed.".
Explanation: The BigFive Inc company, when selecting employees carefully emphasizing the search for skills and above all commitment to the values of customer service and quality of the company, in the long term it was highly benefited since its employees are trained according to the culture Organizational of the company and they not only know how to do their job, but they are also excited and committed.
Answer:
$652,858
Explanation:
Predetermined overhead rate = Budgeted Overheads ÷ Budgeted Activity
= $717,474 ÷ 364,200
= $1.97 per direct labor hour
Allocated overheads = Predetermined overhead rate x Actual Activity
= $1.97 x 331,400 direct labor hours
= $652,858
therefore,
The overhead allocated for May is $652,858.
Answer:
$143,750
Explanation:
We have to first calculate the present value of the bargain purchase option:
PV = $200,000 / (1 + 6%)⁵ = $149,451.63
net lease amount = $790,000 - $149,452 = $640,548
PVIF Annuity due, 6%, 5 payments = 4.546
Annual payment = $640,548 / 4.456 = $143,750