Answer:
10%
Explanation:
Since the bond is selling at a discount, it means that the coupon rate is blow the market rate, so the actual rate must be higher. Since there is only one option with an interest rate above 9%, we must check to see if it works.
10% yearly interest rate = 5% semiannual interest rate
we must determine the PV of the 20 coupons paid and the face value at maturity.
to calculate the PV of the 20 coupons ($45 each) we can use an excel spreadsheet and the NPV function with a 5% discount rate: PV of the coupons = $560.80
the PV of the face value in 10 years = $1,000 / 1.05²⁰ = $376.89
the present value of the coupons and the bond at maturity = $560.80 + $376.89 = $937.69. The PV using a 5% semiannual rate is very similar to $937.75, and since the question asked us to round up to the nearest whole percent, we can assume it is correct.
Answer:
A. Workers are trained to do all or most of the jobs in the unit
Explanation:
A self-managed team is a group of employees that's responsible and accountable for all or most aspects of producing a product or delivering a service. Traditional organizational structures assign tasks to employees depending on their specialist skills or the functional department within which they work
Answer:
A. reflects the enjoyment a consumer receives from consuming a particular set of goods and services
Explanation:
When modeling consumer behavior, utility reflects the enjoyment a consumer receives from consuming a particular set of goods and services
Answer:
payback 2.5 years
Explanation:
the payback will be the point in time at which the project cash flow equal the invesmtent.
This method do not consider the time value of money so we don't have to adjust any period cashflow or outflow.
investment: 5,000
increase in cash-flow 2,000
Investment/cash flow = 5,000 / 2,000 = 2.5 years
The depreciation are not considered as this are not cash flow.
Answer:
bad debt expense 6,000 debit
allowance for uncollectible amounts 6,000 credit
Explanation:
expected allowance balance:
account receivable x expected uncollectible amount
200,000 x 4% = 8,000
currently the allowance balance is 2,000
so the amount of the adjustment will be to move the balance to 8,000 from 2,000: adjusting entry for 6,000
